After taking orlistat for one week, a female patient tells the home health nurse that she is experiencing increasingly frequent oily stools and gas.
What action should the nurse take?
Ask the patient to describe her dietary intake history for the last several days.
Advise the patient to stop taking the drug and contact her healthcare provider.
Instruct the patient to increase her intake of saturated fats over the next week.
Obtain a stool specimen to evaluate for occult blood and fat content.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
If a patient is experiencing increasingly frequent oily stools and gas after taking orlistat for one week, the nurse should ask the patient to describe her dietary intake history for the last
several days. Orlistat works by inhibiting the absorption of dietary fats, which are then excreted in the stool. Consuming a diet high in fat can increase the side effects of orlistat, which include oily or fatty stools and gas.
Choice B rationale
Advising the patient to stop taking the drug and contact her healthcare provider is not the first step. The nurse should first assess the patient’s dietary habits as the side effects may be due to a high-fat diet.
Choice C rationale
Instructing the patient to increase her intake of saturated fats over the next week is not advisable. A high-fat diet can increase the side effects of orlistat.
Choice D rationale
Obtaining a stool specimen to evaluate for occult blood and fat content is not necessary in this case. The symptoms described by the patient are common side effects of orlistat and can often be managed by adjusting the diet.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering glucagon intramuscularly is typically done in response to severe hypoglycemia, not for symptoms of confusion and blurred vision which are side effects of glipizide. Glucagon works by triggering the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream, which would not be beneficial in this case as the client’s symptoms suggest hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia.
Choice B rationale
While measuring the client’s vital signs is an important part of overall patient assessment, it does not directly address the client’s immediate issue of confusion and blurred vision after receiving a dose of glipizide.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a fingerstick blood glucose level is the most appropriate action. The client’s symptoms of confusion and blurred vision are common side effects of glipizide, which is used to lower blood sugar levels in people with type 2 diabetes. These symptoms may indicate that the client’s blood sugar level is too low (hypoglycemia). Checking the blood glucose level will provide immediate information about the client’s current blood sugar level and guide further interventions.
Choice D rationale
Performing a neurological exam is not the most appropriate immediate response. While confusion and blurred vision can be symptoms of neurological issues, in this context, they are likely related to the client’s recent dose of glipizide.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Risedronate should be taken with a full glass of plain water on an empty stomach, at least 30 minutes before any food, beverage, or other medicines. This is because food and beverages can decrease the absorption of risedronate.
Choice B rationale
Delaying the medication until the patient’s breakfast tray arrives would not be appropriate, as risedronate needs to be taken on an empty stomach.
Choice C rationale
Consulting with a pharmacist about administering the dose one hour post-meal would not be appropriate, as risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach.
Choice D rationale
Assigning an unlicensed assistive personnel to bring the patient a glass of low-fat milk would not be appropriate, as risedronate should be taken with plain water.
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