After the nurse has taught the client with a newly diagnosed sexually transmitted infection about expedited partner therapy, which client statement indicates that teaching has been effective?
"I will make sure that my partner takes all the prescribed medication."
"I will have my partner take the antibiotics if any STI symptoms occur."
"I will have my partner use a condom until I finish the antibiotics."
"I will tell my partner that it is important to be examined at the clinic."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "I will make sure that my partner takes all the prescribed medication.": This is the correct answer. Expedited partner therapy involves treating the partner(s) without an initial clinical visit, so ensuring they take all prescribed medications is essential to prevent reinfection.
B. "I will have my partner take the antibiotics if any STI symptoms occur.": This is incorrect because the partner should take the antibiotics regardless of symptoms to effectively treat the infection.
C. "I will have my partner use a condom until I finish the antibiotics.": While condom use is important, it does not replace the need for the partner to receive treatment.
D. "I will tell my partner that it is important to be examined at the clinic.": Although important, expedited partner therapy aims to provide treatment without a clinic visit.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "They will circulate my blood on a machine during the surgery.": This is correct information regarding the use of a heart-lung machine during CABG.
B. "I will need to take an aspirin every day after the surgery to keep the graft open.": Daily aspirin therapy is standard to prevent graft occlusion, indicating correct understanding.
C. "They will use an artery near my heart to go around the area that is blocked.": This accurately describes using the internal mammary artery for the bypass, showing correct knowledge.
D. "I will have small incisions in my leg where they will remove the vein.": This indicates confusion, as the internal mammary artery, not leg veins, is used in this type of CABG.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Although monitoring hemodynamic parameters is important, this option does not address the immediate issue of low preload, as indicated by the low CVP and PAWP, suggesting hypovolemia.
B. Furosemide is a diuretic and would further decrease intravascular volume, which is inappropriate given the signs of hypovolemia.
C. Decreasing IV fluids would exacerbate the low preload and worsen the client's condition by reducing intravascular volume even further.
D. Administering 0.9% Normal Saline @ 150 mL/hr is the most appropriate intervention. The low CVP and PAWP indicate hypovolemia, and increasing fluid administration will help to increase the preload, thereby improving the client's hemodynamic status.
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