A client is in the hospital and has received two doses of an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for hypertension. When the nurse answers the client's call light, the client presents an appearance as shown below. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
Administer epinephrine 1:1000, 0.3 mg IV push immediately.
Reassure the client that these symptoms will go away.
Ensure a patent airway while calling the Rapid Response Team.
Apply oxygen by facemask at 100% and a pulse oximeter.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Epinephrine is used in cases of severe allergic reactions or anaphylaxis, and while it may be appropriate in treating angioedema, the first priority is to ensure the airway is clear and that the client can breathe. Administering epinephrine may be part of the treatment plan but should follow securing the airway and calling for immediate advanced help.
B. This is not appropriate because angioedema can be life-threatening and can rapidly progress to airway obstruction. Reassurance without action would delay necessary interventions and could jeopardize the client’s safety.
C. In cases of angioedema, airway obstruction is the most dangerous complication, as it can lead to asphyxiation. The nurse's first priority is to ensure that the patient's airway remains open and clear. The nurse should immediately call the Rapid Response Team (RRT) for urgent medical intervention, which may include medications (like epinephrine), intubation, or other interventions. Ensuring the airway is open and calling for advanced help are the most critical first steps in managing severe cases of angioedema.
D. While oxygen therapy may be appropriate if the client shows signs of respiratory distress or hypoxia, the immediate concern is securing the airway. Oxygen may be needed after ensuring the airway is open, but the priority is to avoid airway obstruction first. The nurse should secure the airway and then administer oxygen if needed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Mild hyponatremia (Sodium < 135 mEq/L) typically does not produce distinctive ECG changes. This value is unlikely to correlate with the presence of U waves.
B. Hyperkalemia (Potassium > 5.0 mEq/L) is associated with peaked T waves, widened QRS complexes, and flattened or absent P waves, not U waves.
C. Hypokalemia (Potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) is the primary cause of U waves. A potassium level of 2.1 mEq/L is significantly low and can result in ECG changes, including U waves, ST segment depression, and prolonged QT intervals. These changes reflect altered ventricular repolarization.
D. Hypermagnesemia (Magnesium > 2.5 mEq/L) can cause ECG changes such as prolonged PR and QRS intervals, bradycardia, and heart block. However, such an extreme magnesium level of 18 mEq/L would cause severe toxicity and is not associated with U waves.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be used in some cases, but TRUS is more commonly used to guide biopsies after concerns arise from DRE or PSA findings.
B. Uroflowmetry studies measure urine flow, which is not the primary concern in evaluating an enlarged prostate related to potential cancer.
C. Cystourethroscopy is used to evaluate the bladder or urethra and is not typically needed in the assessment of an enlarged prostate.
D. Transrectal ultrasonography (TRUS) is commonly used in the evaluation of prostate abnormalities, especially when there are concerns about prostate cancer due to an abnormal DRE or elevated PSA. It helps in visualizing the prostate and guiding biopsy.
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