An adult patient is admitted for an asthma attack. Which assessment obtained by the nurse would support that beta2 adrenergic agonist albuterol was effective?
Decrease in wheezing present on auscultation
Respiratory rate increased to 38 breaths/min
Sputum production is clear and watery
Use of neck muscles
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Decrease in wheezing present on auscultation indicates that albuterol was effective. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that relaxes the smooth muscles of the airways and reduces the airway resistance. This improves the airflow and reduces the wheezing sound that is caused by the turbulent flow of air through the narrowed airways.
Choice B reason: Respiratory rate increased to 38 breaths/min does not indicate that albuterol was effective. It indicates that the patient is still experiencing respiratory distress and hypoxia. The normal respiratory rate for adults is 12 to 20 breaths/min. A high respiratory rate can also be a side effect of albuterol, as it can stimulate the sympathetic nervous system and increase the heart rate and blood pressure.
Choice C reason: Sputum production is clear and watery does not indicate that albuterol was effective. It indicates that the patient has a productive cough and is expelling mucus from the lungs. Sputum production is not directly affected by albuterol, as it does not have anti-inflammatory or mucolytic properties.
Choice D reason: Use of neck muscles does not indicate that albuterol was effective. It indicates that the patient is using accessory muscles to breathe and is exerting more effort to inhale. This is a sign of severe respiratory distress and airway obstruction. Albuterol should relieve the bronchospasm and reduce the need for accessory muscle use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Jugular vein distention is a sign of right-sided heart failure, not left-sided. It indicates increased pressure in the right atrium and vena cava.
Choice B reason: Peripheral edema is also a sign of right-sided heart failure, not left-sided. It indicates fluid retention in the lower extremities and abdomen.
Choice C reason: Decreased systemic vascular resistance is not a characteristic of left-sided heart failure. It is a compensatory mechanism that occurs in response to reduced cardiac output.
Choice D reason: Pulmonary congestion is a characteristic of left-sided heart failure. It indicates fluid accumulation in the lungs due to the inability of the left ventricle to pump blood effectively.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Vasodilators are not the preferred agents for the initial treatment of heart failure. They are used as adjunctive therapy to reduce the afterload and preload on the heart. However, they do not address the fluid overload that is the main cause of heart failure symptoms.
Choice B reason: Diuretics are the preferred agents for the initial treatment of heart failure. They help to reduce the fluid overload and congestion in the lungs and peripheral tissues. They also lower the blood pressure and improve the cardiac output and renal function.
Choice C reason: Calcium channel blockers are not the preferred agents for the initial treatment of heart failure. They are contraindicated in most cases of heart failure because they can worsen the cardiac function and increase the mortality. They can also cause peripheral edema and hypotension.
Choice D reason: Direct renin inhibitors are not the preferred agents for the initial treatment of heart failure. They are a newer class of drugs that block the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), which is involved in the pathophysiology of heart failure. However, they have not shown any significant benefit over the existing RAAS inhibitors, such as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs). They can also cause hyperkalemia and renal impairment.
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