An elderly client was given a dose of Ambien PO at bedtime for sleep and she was wide awake all night instead of going to sleep.
This adverse reaction to a drug could be classified as a/an:
Drug allergy.
Drug tolerance.
Toxic effect.
Idiosyncratic reaction.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
A drug allergy is an adverse immune-mediated reaction to a drug, involving antibodies or sensitized lymphocytes. Symptoms can range from rash and itching to anaphylaxis, occurring upon re-exposure. This client's reaction, wakefulness instead of sedation, does not align with typical allergic manifestations involving the immune system.
Choice B rationale
Drug tolerance is a diminished physiological response to a drug after repeated administration, requiring higher doses to achieve the same effect. This develops due to adaptive changes in drug receptors or metabolism. The client's experience of wakefulness, an opposite effect, is not indicative of tolerance to the drug's intended hypnotic action.
Choice C rationale
A toxic effect occurs when drug levels in the body exceed the therapeutic range, leading to harmful effects on organs or systems. This is often dose-dependent and can manifest as organ damage or severe side effects. While adverse, the described reaction of wakefulness is not typically classified as a toxic effect of Ambien.
Choice D rationale
An idiosyncratic reaction is an uncharacteristic or unpredictable response to a drug that is not an allergic reaction and does not involve known pharmacological properties. These reactions are often genetically determined and represent an individual's unique sensitivity. The paradoxical wakefulness from a sedative like Ambien is a classic example of an idiosyncratic drug response.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The peak plasma level represents the maximum concentration of a drug achieved in the bloodstream after administration. While half-life influences the time to reach steady state, it does not directly determine the magnitude of the peak plasma level, which is more dependent on dose, absorption rate, and distribution volume.
Choice B rationale
Onset of action refers to the time it takes for a drug to exert its therapeutic effects after administration. While related to pharmacokinetic properties, the half-life primarily dictates the duration of drug presence and accumulation, not the immediate time to initial effect, which is more influenced by absorption and distribution.
Choice C rationale
A drug's half-life is the time it takes for the plasma concentration of a drug to be reduced by 50%. This pharmacokinetic parameter is critical for determining appropriate dosing intervals to maintain therapeutic drug levels within a desired range over a 24-hour period, preventing accumulation or sub-therapeutic concentrations.
Choice D rationale
The duration of effectiveness refers to the length of time a drug produces its therapeutic effect. While the half-life influences how long a drug remains in the system, the duration of effectiveness is also dependent on the drug's mechanism of action, receptor binding, and the patient's individual physiological responses, not solely on half-life.
Correct Answer is ["39.2"]
Explanation
Step 1 is: Subtract 32 from the Fahrenheit temperature. 102.6 - 32 = 70.6.
Step 2 is: Divide the result by 1.8. 70.6 ÷ 1.8 = 39.222.
Step 3 is: Round to the nearest tenth. The final calculated answer is 39.2 °C.
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