An elderly patient who lives in a skilled nursing facility and who likes to walk is taking a medication that lowers blood pressure by dilating blood vessels. The best nursing action for this patient is to:
Suggest total bed rest.
Assist the patient when ambulating in the hall.
Monitor intake and output.
Instruct the resident to rise slowly when getting out of bed or a chair.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Bed rest increases clot risk and deconditioning; vasodilators lower pressure, but mobility is beneficial unless contraindicated, making this overly restrictive.
Choice B reason: Assisting ambulation helps, but it’s less proactive; it doesn’t address orthostatic hypotension risks at initiation of movement, where falls are most likely.
Choice C reason: Monitoring intake/output tracks fluid status, not directly addressing vasodilation’s hypotensive effects during position changes, missing the primary safety concern.
Choice D reason: Rising slowly counters orthostatic hypotension from vasodilation; it allows autoregulation to stabilize pressure, reducing fall risk in an active elderly patient.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: While reliability exists, the oral route is less predictable than IV administration due to variability in absorption caused by digestive factors, making it less reliable for rapid or consistent onset.
Choice B reason: Convenience is the primary advantage of oral administration. It allows ease of self-administration, enabling clients to manage their medications without healthcare provider intervention, making it the most frequently used route.
Choice C reason: While many clients tolerate oral medications well, others may face challenges, such as difficulty swallowing or gastric irritation, meaning tolerability varies and is not a universal advantage of this route.
Choice D reason: The oral route does not ensure fast action due to time required for digestion, absorption, and metabolism, making it slower compared to routes like IV or sublingual administration.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Four times (6:00 a.m., noon, 6:00 p.m., midnight) is QID, not TID; TID means three times daily, and this schedule overdoses the patient unnecessarily.
Choice B reason: Six times daily is every 4 hours, not TID; this exceeds the three-dose requirement, risking toxicity or side effects from excessive administration frequency.
Choice C reason: 9:00 a.m., 1:00 p.m., 5:00 p.m. is TID; spaced 8 hours apart, it aligns with standard three-times-daily dosing, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels safely.
Choice D reason: Meal and bedtime timing is vague; without fixed hours, it risks uneven dosing intervals, potentially disrupting pharmacokinetics and efficacy of the medication.
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