An older female client who was recently widowed has become increasingly confused and disoriented. Her family tells the healthcare provider's office nurse that it is imperative for their mother to be admitted to the hospital for medical evaluation. The client is a member of a managed healthcare plan. Which information is best for the nurse to provide this family?

Managed healthcare plans do not pay for any in-hospital medical evaluations.

Healthcare costs are escalating because clients want to have diagnostic testing conducted in the hospital.

The client is grieving normally in response to her husband's death and hospitalization is not necessary.

Managed care providers have mandatory pre-certification requirements for hospitalization.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A Reason: Managed healthcare plans do not pay for any in-hospital medical evaluations is not the best information for the nurse to provide this family. This statement is false and misleading. Managed healthcare plans may cover in-hospital medical evaluations if they are deemed medically necessary and authorized by the plan. The nurse should not discourage the family from seeking appropriate care for their mother based on inaccurate information.

Choice B Reason: Healthcare costs are escalating because clients want to have diagnostic testing conducted in the hospital is not the best information for the nurse to provide this family. This statement is irrelevant and insensitive. Healthcare costs are influenced by many factors, such as technology, inflation, regulation, and demand. The nurse should not blame the clients for wanting to have diagnostic testing done in the hospital, which may be essential for their health and well-being.

Choice C Reason: The client is grieving normally in response to her husband's death and hospitalization is not necessary is not the best information for the nurse to provide this family. This statement is presumptuous and dismissive. Grief is a complex and individual process that may affect people differently. The nurse should not assume that the client's confusion and disorientation are normal signs of grief, which may mask underlying medical conditions that require evaluation and treatment.

Choice D Reason: Managed care providers have mandatory pre-certification requirements for hospitalization is the best information for the nurse to provide this family. This statement is factual and helpful. Pre-certification is a process by which managed care providers review and approve proposed hospital admissions, procedures, or services before they are performed. The nurse should inform the family that they need to obtain pre-certification from their mother's plan before admitting her to the hospital, or they may face denial of coverage or higher out-of-pocket costs.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This client has a very high BNP level, which indicates severe heart failure and fluid overload. The nurse should follow up with this client first, as they may need urgent interventions such as oxygen therapy, diuretics, and vasodilators.

Choice B Reason: This client has an INR within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy, which is usually between 2 and 3. The nurse should monitor this client for signs of bleeding or clotting, but they do not require immediate follow-up.

Choice C Reason: This client has a mildly elevated glucose level, which may be caused by the corticosteroids that

increase blood sugar. The nurse should check the client's blood glucose regularly and administer insulin as ordered, but they do not require immediate follow-up.

Choice D Reason: This client has a normal potassium level, which is within the reference range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L. The nurse should ensure that the client is ready for dialysis and avoid foods high in potassium, but they do not require immediate follow-up.

A. Inform the pharmacist who dispensed the medication. B. Evaluate the client for symptoms of a drug overdose. C. Report the medication error to the nursing supervisor. D. Review the medication transcription with the nurse.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This is not the first priority because it does not address the client's safety and well-being. The charge nurse should inform the pharmacist who dispensed the medication, but this can be done later.

Choice B Reason: This is the best action because it protects the client from harm and prevents further complications. The charge nurse should evaluate the client for symptoms of a drug overdose, such as nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, or respiratory depression, and administer antidotes or supportive measures if needed.

Choice C Reason: This is not the first priority because it does not provide immediate care to the client. The charge nurse should report the medication error to the nursing supervisor, but this can be done later.

Choice D Reason: This is not the first priority because it does not correct the mistake or prevent recurrence. The charge nurse should review the medication transcription with the nurse, but this can be done later.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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