Benztropine is ordered as needed (PRN) for a client taking haloperidol after being diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder.
Which of the following assessments by the nurse would indicate a need for this medication?
The client has increasing aggression.
The client has elevated blood pressure.
The client has complaints of dizziness.
The client has extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
The Correct Answer is D
A. Increasing aggression may be an indication for a PRN medication, but benztropine specifically targets extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
B. Elevated blood pressure is not a direct indication for benztropine; it is used to address EPS.
C. Complaints of dizziness may not be directly related to EPS, which is the target of benztropine.
D. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "It sounds as though the antidepressants are working well. Just ask the client if the client is experiencing any side effects and let me know." This response does not adequately address the change in mood and the potential for hypomania. It assumes the change is solely due to the antidepressants.
B. "I'm concerned. Sometimes depressed people seem contented when they have decided to commit suicide. Let's schedule an appointment for tomorrow." While it's important to assess for suicidality, the description provided does not indicate immediate suicidal intent. The client's behavior is more indicative of hypomania.
C. "Since the client is eating, sleeping, and not behaving inappropriately, there's nothing to worry about. Just let me know if the client starts getting irritable or has trouble sleeping." This response downplays the significance of the mood change and does not address the potential for hypomania.
D. "The client sounds hypomanic. Let's schedule an appointment for this week for an evaluation. The client may need additional or different medication." This response correctly identifies the potential for hypomania and takes appropriate action by scheduling an evaluation. Adjusting the client's medication may be necessary to address the change in mood.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect. Naltrexone does not primarily target withdrawal symptoms. It works by blocking the pleasurable effects of alcohol, reducing the reinforcement that leads to craving.
B) Correct. Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist that reduces the craving for alcohol. It does this by blocking the opioid receptors in the brain, which are involved in the pleasurable effects of
alcohol consumption.
C) Incorrect. Naltrexone is not primarily used to manage anxiety. Its main purpose is to help individuals reduce or stop their alcohol intake.
D) Incorrect. Naltrexone is not primarily used to treat depressive symptoms. Its focus is on reducing alcohol cravings.
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