The spouse of a client diagnosed recently with a mood disorder calls the nurse therapist to report a change in the client's mood. The spouse states, "My spouse is clearly in a better mood than usual. I would say my spouse seems mildly elated. They are functioning fine at work and home. My spouse is energetic, up and doing things at 500 a.m. and really confident again. It seems fantastic, but unusual. Is this something to worry about?"
Which potential response by the nurse accurately assesses the situation?
"It sounds as though the antidepressants are working well. Just ask the client if the client is experiencing any side effects and let me know."
"I'm concerned. Sometimes depressed people seem contented when they have decided to commit suicide. Let's schedule an appointment for tomorrow."
"Since the client is eating, sleeping, and not behaving inappropriately, there's nothing to worry about. Just let me know if the client starts getting irritable or has trouble sleeping."
"The client sounds hypomanic. Let's schedule an appointment for this week for an evaluation. The client may need additional or different medication."
The Correct Answer is D
A. "It sounds as though the antidepressants are working well. Just ask the client if the client is experiencing any side effects and let me know." This response does not adequately address the change in mood and the potential for hypomania. It assumes the change is solely due to the antidepressants.
B. "I'm concerned. Sometimes depressed people seem contented when they have decided to commit suicide. Let's schedule an appointment for tomorrow." While it's important to assess for suicidality, the description provided does not indicate immediate suicidal intent. The client's behavior is more indicative of hypomania.
C. "Since the client is eating, sleeping, and not behaving inappropriately, there's nothing to worry about. Just let me know if the client starts getting irritable or has trouble sleeping." This response downplays the significance of the mood change and does not address the potential for hypomania.
D. "The client sounds hypomanic. Let's schedule an appointment for this week for an evaluation. The client may need additional or different medication." This response correctly identifies the potential for hypomania and takes appropriate action by scheduling an evaluation. Adjusting the client's medication may be necessary to address the change in mood.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect. While the client's sleep disturbance and lack of selfcare may contribute to
ineffective health maintenance, the more immediate concern is addressing the risk of imbalanced nutrition.
B) Incorrect. While clients in a manic state may exhibit hyperactivity and impulsivity, there is no indication in the scenario that the client poses an immediate risk for other-directed violence.
C) Correct. The client's reported lack of sleep and refusal to eat for an extended period raises concerns about nutritional deficits and dehydration. This is the most immediate and pressing issue to address.
D) Incorrect. While the client's manic state may increase the risk of impulsive behavior, there is no specific indication in the scenario that the client is at immediate risk for suicide.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
A. Brain atrophy is a common physiological change in the brain of individuals with Alzheimer's disease.
B. An overabundance of plaques, specifically amyloid beta, is a characteristic feature of Alzheimer's disease.
C. An overabundance of tangles, specifically tau protein, is also a characteristic feature of Alzheimer's disease.
D. Enlargement of the hippocampus is not typically associated with Alzheimer's disease; rather, it tends to shrink.
E. Enlarged cerebral cortex is not a typical physiological change in Alzheimer's disease; it actually tends to shrink.
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