The spouse of a client diagnosed recently with a mood disorder calls the nurse therapist to report a change in the client's mood. The spouse states, "My spouse is clearly in a better mood than usual. I would say my spouse seems mildly elated. They are functioning fine at work and home. My spouse is energetic, up and doing things at 500 a.m. and really confident again. It seems fantastic, but unusual. Is this something to worry about?"
Which potential response by the nurse accurately assesses the situation?
"It sounds as though the antidepressants are working well. Just ask the client if the client is experiencing any side effects and let me know."
"I'm concerned. Sometimes depressed people seem contented when they have decided to commit suicide. Let's schedule an appointment for tomorrow."
"Since the client is eating, sleeping, and not behaving inappropriately, there's nothing to worry about. Just let me know if the client starts getting irritable or has trouble sleeping."
"The client sounds hypomanic. Let's schedule an appointment for this week for an evaluation. The client may need additional or different medication."
The Correct Answer is D
A. "It sounds as though the antidepressants are working well. Just ask the client if the client is experiencing any side effects and let me know." This response does not adequately address the change in mood and the potential for hypomania. It assumes the change is solely due to the antidepressants.
B. "I'm concerned. Sometimes depressed people seem contented when they have decided to commit suicide. Let's schedule an appointment for tomorrow." While it's important to assess for suicidality, the description provided does not indicate immediate suicidal intent. The client's behavior is more indicative of hypomania.
C. "Since the client is eating, sleeping, and not behaving inappropriately, there's nothing to worry about. Just let me know if the client starts getting irritable or has trouble sleeping." This response downplays the significance of the mood change and does not address the potential for hypomania.
D. "The client sounds hypomanic. Let's schedule an appointment for this week for an evaluation. The client may need additional or different medication." This response correctly identifies the potential for hypomania and takes appropriate action by scheduling an evaluation. Adjusting the client's medication may be necessary to address the change in mood.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect. Delusions of reference involve a belief that everyday events, objects, or other people have a particular and unusual significance. This is not described in the scenario.
B) Incorrect. Tangentiality is a thought disorder where the individual goes off on tangents and never returns to the original point or idea. This is not described in the scenario.
C) Incorrect. Neologism refers to the creation of new words or phrases that have meaning only to the person using them. This is not described in the scenario.
D) Correct. Loose associations are characterized by a disruption in the logical progression of thought, where thoughts become disorganized and may seem unrelated or loosely connected.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Administering diazepam may be part of the treatment plan for delirium tremens, but ensuring adequate hydration and addressing potential electrolyte imbalances is the first priority.
B. Raising the side rails is important for safety, but it is not the highest priority action at this time.
C. Obtaining a medical history is important for comprehensive care, but in this urgent situation, addressing fluid and electrolyte balance is the first priority.
D. Starting intravenous fluids is crucial for rehydration and addressing potential electrolyte imbalances, which is the priority in this emergency situation.
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