The spouse of a client diagnosed recently with a mood disorder calls the nurse therapist to report a change in the client's mood. The spouse states, "My spouse is clearly in a better mood than usual. I would say my spouse seems mildly elated. They are functioning fine at work and home. My spouse is energetic, up and doing things at 500 a.m. and really confident again. It seems fantastic, but unusual. Is this something to worry about?"
Which potential response by the nurse accurately assesses the situation?
"It sounds as though the antidepressants are working well. Just ask the client if the client is experiencing any side effects and let me know."
"I'm concerned. Sometimes depressed people seem contented when they have decided to commit suicide. Let's schedule an appointment for tomorrow."
"Since the client is eating, sleeping, and not behaving inappropriately, there's nothing to worry about. Just let me know if the client starts getting irritable or has trouble sleeping."
"The client sounds hypomanic. Let's schedule an appointment for this week for an evaluation. The client may need additional or different medication."
The Correct Answer is D
A. "It sounds as though the antidepressants are working well. Just ask the client if the client is experiencing any side effects and let me know." This response does not adequately address the change in mood and the potential for hypomania. It assumes the change is solely due to the antidepressants.
B. "I'm concerned. Sometimes depressed people seem contented when they have decided to commit suicide. Let's schedule an appointment for tomorrow." While it's important to assess for suicidality, the description provided does not indicate immediate suicidal intent. The client's behavior is more indicative of hypomania.
C. "Since the client is eating, sleeping, and not behaving inappropriately, there's nothing to worry about. Just let me know if the client starts getting irritable or has trouble sleeping." This response downplays the significance of the mood change and does not address the potential for hypomania.
D. "The client sounds hypomanic. Let's schedule an appointment for this week for an evaluation. The client may need additional or different medication." This response correctly identifies the potential for hypomania and takes appropriate action by scheduling an evaluation. Adjusting the client's medication may be necessary to address the change in mood.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Anhedonia is a symptom commonly associated with depression, characterized by a decreased ability to experience pleasure or interest in activities.
B. Aphasia is a language disorder that affects the ability to communicate. It may involve difficulty in speaking, understanding language, reading, or writing. This is not demonstrated in the scenario.
C. Akathisia is a side effect of some antipsychotic medications characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and the need to move constantly. It is not demonstrated in the scenario.
D. Agnosia is a symptom of dementia characterized by the inability to recognize familiar objects, people, or places, despite the senses being intact. In this scenario, the client's inability to recognize that their glasses are not a form of identification indicates agnosia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct. Schizoaffective disorder is characterized by a combination of symptoms of schizophrenia (such as delusions and hallucinations) and mood disorders (such as depression or mania).
B) Incorrect. Waxy flexibility and catatonic excitement are more commonly associated with catatonic schizophrenia, not schizoaffective disorder.
C) Incorrect. Bizarre mannerisms and hostility may be seen in various psychiatric disorders but are not specific to schizoaffective disorder.
D) Incorrect. While agitation and ideas of reference can occur in schizoaffective disorder, they are not the defining features of this diagnosis.
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