During the oliguric phase of acute renal failure, which of the following occurs?
Urine output (UO) completely stops.
Urine output (UO) is less than 400 mL/24 hours.
Urine output (UO) is not measured.
Urine output (UO) is greater than 500 mL/24 hours.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Urine output (UO) does not completely stop during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. While it is significantly reduced, some urine production still occurs. Complete cessation of urine output is known as anuria, which is a more severe condition and a medical emergency.
Anuria may occur in the most severe cases of acute renal failure, but it is not the defining characteristic of the oliguric phase.
It's crucial to distinguish between oliguria and anuria, as their management approaches differ significantly.
Choice B rationale:
During the oliguric phase of acute renal failure, urine output (UO) is less than 400 mL/24 hours. This is the defining characteristic of this phase.
The decrease in urine output is due to damage to the kidneys' filtering units, known as nephrons. As a result, the kidneys are unable to filter waste products and excess fluids effectively from the blood, leading to their accumulation in the body.
This reduced urine output can lead to various complications, including fluid overload, electrolyte imbalances, and a buildup of waste products in the blood (uremia).
Choice C rationale:
Urine output (UO) is always measured during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. It is a vital clinical indicator to monitor the severity of kidney dysfunction and guide treatment decisions.
Accurate measurement of urine output is essential for assessing fluid balance, kidney function, and the effectiveness of treatment interventions.
Choice D rationale:
Urine output (UO) is not greater than 500 mL/24 hours during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. A urine output greater than 500 mL/24 hours would indicate a non-oliguric phase of acute renal failure or a potential recovery phase.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is C. The test results are normal.
Choice A rationale:
A biophysical profile (BPP) score of 8 does not necessarily indicate a need for immediate cesarean delivery.
Cesarean delivery is typically reserved for cases where there is a clear and urgent risk to the health of the mother or fetus, such as severe fetal distress or placental abruption.
A score of 8, while not the highest possible score, is still within the normal range and does not, by itself, constitute a reason for immediate surgical intervention.
Choice B rationale:
Additional tests may be considered in certain cases, such as when the BPP score is borderline or when there are other risk factors present.
However, a score of 8 is generally considered reassuring and does not typically warrant further testing.
It's essential to evaluate the BPP score in the context of the overall clinical picture, including the gestational age, maternal health, and fetal history.
Choice D rationale:
While an obstetric specialist may review the BPP results and discuss delivery options with the patient, this is not typically done within a week for a score of 8.
A score of 8 indicates reassuring fetal well-being, and there is usually no need for such urgent consultation or decision-making.
The timing of delivery discussions would depend on the overall clinical situation and the patient's individual preferences.
Choice C rationale:
A BPP score of 8 is considered normal.
It suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and has normal heart rate, breathing movements, muscle tone, and amniotic fluid levels.
This score does not raise immediate concerns about fetal well-being and does not typically require any immediate interventions.
Correct Answer is ["A","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Prostaglandins:
Mechanism of action: Prostaglandins are hormone-like substances that play a crucial role in labor initiation. They act by softening and ripening the cervix, stimulating uterine contractions, and rupturing the amniotic sac.
Types: Prostaglandins used for labor induction include:
Dinoprostone (Cervidil, Prepidil): Inserted into the vagina as a gel or pessary.
Misoprostol (Cytotec): Administered orally or vaginally.
Effectiveness: Generally effective in initiating labor within 24 hours, with success rates ranging from 60-85%.
Advantages:
Can be used when the cervix is unfavorable (not ripe).
Can be administered in a variety of ways to suit the patient's preferences.
May have a lower risk of uterine hyperstimulation compared to oxytocin.
Disadvantages:
Can cause side effects such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever.
May increase the risk of uterine rupture, especially in women with a history of cesarean delivery.
Choice D rationale:
Amnioinfusion:
Procedure: Involves the infusion of sterile saline solution into the amniotic sac through a small catheter.
Mechanism of action: Not fully understood, but it's thought to work by:
Increasing amniotic fluid volume, which can help to stimulate contractions.
Stretching the uterine walls, which may trigger the release of prostaglandins.
Reducing pressure on the umbilical cord, which can improve fetal oxygenation.
Effectiveness: Usually used in conjunction with other induction methods, such as oxytocin or prostaglandins. Has a success rate of about 50-60% in initiating labor within 24 hours.
Advantages:
May be helpful in cases of low amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios).
Can decrease the risk of umbilical cord compression.
Disadvantages:
Requires the insertion of a catheter into the uterus, which carries a small risk of infection.
May cause discomfort for the mother.
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