To help pregnant clients manage discomfort and pain during labor, what is a nurse aware of?
The predominant pain of the first stage of labor is the visceral pain located in the lower portion of the abdomen.
Referred pain is the extreme discomfort between contractions.
The somatic pain of the second stage of labor is more generalized and related to fatigue.
Pain during the third stage is a somewhat milder version of the second stage.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Visceral pain arises from the internal organs and is often described as dull, aching, cramping, or squeezing. During the first stage of labor, the uterus contracts forcefully to dilate the cervix and move the baby down the birth canal. This stretching and pressure on the uterus, cervix, and other pelvic organs stimulate pain receptors, resulting in visceral pain. This pain is typically located in the lower abdomen, back, and groin.
Key points about visceral pain in the first stage of labor:
It's often described as dull, aching, cramping, or squeezing.
It's caused by the stretching and pressure on the uterus, cervix, and other pelvic organs.
It's typically located in the lower abdomen, back, and groin.
It can be intermittent or continuous.
It can vary in intensity from mild to severe.
It's often accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, sweating, and anxiety.
Choice B rationale:
Referred pain is pain that is felt in a different location from the source of the pain. It's not typically associated with the first stage of labor.
Choice C rationale:
Somatic pain arises from the skin, muscles, bones, and joints. It's often described as sharp, stabbing, burning, or throbbing. The somatic pain of the second stage of labor is caused by the stretching and distension of the perineum and vagina as the baby descends. It's typically located in the lower back, buttocks, and thighs.
Choice D rationale:
Pain during the third stage of labor is typically mild compared to the first and second stages. It's caused by the contractions of the uterus as it expels the placenta. It's usually located in the lower abdomen and may be accompanied by a feeling of pressure or fullness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Electrolytes do not consistently improve during the diuretic phase of renal failure. While urine output increases, the kidneys' ability to regulate electrolytes may still be impaired. Electrolyte imbalances, such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, and hyperphosphatemia, can persist or even worsen during this phase.
Close monitoring of electrolytes is crucial to guide appropriate interventions, such as electrolyte replacement or restriction.
Choice B rationale:
Urine output (UO) does not remain unchanged during the diuretic phase. It is a defining characteristic of this phase that urine output increases, often significantly. This increase in urine output is a result of the recovering kidney tubules' ability to excrete fluid and waste products.
Choice C rationale:
Urine output (UO) increases in the diuretic phase of renal failure. This is a key feature that distinguishes this phase from the oliguric phase, which is characterized by decreased urine output. The increase in urine output is typically a sign of kidney function recovery. However, it is important to note that the increase in urine output does not necessarily mean that kidney function has fully recovered.
Choice D rationale:
Oxygenation does not typically worsen during the diuretic phase of renal failure. In fact, oxygenation may improve as fluid overload is resolved and pulmonary edema decreases. However, patients with underlying respiratory conditions or those who experience rapid fluid shifts may still require respiratory support.
Correct Answer is ["A","D"]
Explanation
correct answer/s is A and D.
Choice A rationale:
Prostaglandins:
Mechanism of action: Prostaglandins are hormone-like substances that play a crucial role in labor initiation. They act by softening and ripening the cervix, stimulating uterine contractions, and rupturing the amniotic sac.
Types: Prostaglandins used for labor induction include:
Dinoprostone (Cervidil, Prepidil): Inserted into the vagina as a gel or pessary.
Misoprostol (Cytotec): Administered orally or vaginally.
Effectiveness: Generally effective in initiating labor within 24 hours, with success rates ranging from 60-85%.
Advantages:
Can be used when the cervix is unfavorable (not ripe).
Can be administered in a variety of ways to suit the patient's preferences.
May have a lower risk of uterine hyperstimulation compared to oxytocin.
Disadvantages:
Can cause side effects such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever.
May increase the risk of uterine rupture, especially in women with a history of cesarean delivery.
Choice D rationale:
Amnioinfusion:
Procedure: Involves the infusion of sterile saline solution into the amniotic sac through a small catheter.
Mechanism of action: Not fully understood, but it's thought to work by:
Increasing amniotic fluid volume, which can help to stimulate contractions.
Stretching the uterine walls, which may trigger the release of prostaglandins.
Reducing pressure on the umbilical cord, which can improve fetal oxygenation.
Effectiveness: Usually used in conjunction with other induction methods, such as oxytocin or prostaglandins. Has a success rate of about 50-60% in initiating labor within 24 hours.
Advantages:
May be helpful in cases of low amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios).
Can decrease the risk of umbilical cord compression.
Disadvantages:
Requires the insertion of a catheter into the uterus, which carries a small risk of infection.
May cause discomfort for the mother.
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