Edited Text
A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) receives a new prescription for lorazepam. Which statement provided by the client requires additional instruction by the nurse?

Use relaxation techniques to reduce excessive anxiety.

Avoid alcohol and other sedatives while taking the medication.

Move slowly from a sitting position to a standing position.

Stop taking the medication if intended effect is not immediate.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

The correct answer is d. Stop taking the medication if intended effect is not immediate.

Choice A Reason:

Using relaxation techniques to reduce excessive anxiety is a beneficial practice for managing generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Techniques such as deep breathing, meditation, and progressive muscle relaxation can complement medication therapy and help reduce anxiety symptoms1. This statement does not require additional instruction as it aligns with recommended practices.

Choice B Reason:

Avoiding alcohol and other sedatives while taking lorazepam is crucial. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that can cause sedation and depress the central nervous system. Combining it with alcohol or other sedatives can enhance these effects, leading to dangerous levels of sedation, respiratory depression, or even overdose2. This advice is appropriate and does not need further instruction.

Choice C Reason:

Moving slowly from a sitting position to a standing position is important to prevent dizziness or lightheadedness, which can be side effects of lorazepam3. This precaution helps reduce the risk of falls and injuries, making it a suitable recommendation that does not require additional instruction.

Choice D Reason:

Stopping the medication if the intended effect is not immediate requires additional instruction. Lorazepam, like other benzodiazepines, may not produce immediate effects, especially in the context of anxiety management. It is important for clients to understand that medication may take some time to achieve the desired therapeutic effect and that abrupt discontinuation can lead to withdrawal symptoms and a potential rebound in anxiety4. The nurse should instruct the client to follow the prescribed regimen and consult their healthcare provider before making any changes to their medication.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Reports of increased energy levels and decreased fatigue are subjective indicators of improvement in anemia symptoms. While these reports are important and suggest that the client is feeling better, they do not provide objective evidence of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Hemoglobin levels are a more precise measure of the medication’s impact on anemia.

Choice B Reason:

A food diary showing increased consumption of iron-rich foods indicates that the client is making dietary changes to support their anemia treatment. However, this does not directly measure the effectiveness of epoetin alfa. The medication’s primary goal is to stimulate red blood cell production, which is best assessed through hemoglobin levels.

Choice C Reason:

An increase in hemoglobin level to 12 g/dL (7.45 mmol/L) is an objective indicator that epoetin alfa is effective. Hemoglobin levels are a direct measure of the red blood cell count and oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. An increase in hemoglobin levels indicates that the medication is successfully treating the anemia associated with CKD.

Choice D Reason:

Taking concurrent iron therapy without adverse effects is important for overall treatment adherence and minimizing side effects. However, it does not directly indicate the effectiveness of epoetin alfa. The primary measure of effectiveness is the improvement in hemoglobin levels.

A. Instruct the client to obtain a prescription for oral terbinafine. B. Advise the client to obtain a prescription-strength formulation of the ointment. C. Suggest that the client use the ointment twice a day to be more effective. D. Reassure the client that treatment of fungus-infected toenails often takes several months.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Instructing the client to obtain a prescription for oral terbinafine is the most appropriate action. Oral terbinafine is an antifungal medication that is effective in treating fungal infections of the toenails. It works by inhibiting the growth of fungi, leading to the resolution of the infection. Topical treatments are often insufficient for toenail fungal infections because they do not penetrate the nail bed effectively.

Choice B reason:

Advising the client to obtain a prescription-strength formulation of the ointment is not the best approach. While prescription-strength topical antifungals can be more effective than OTC options, they still may not penetrate the nail bed adequately to treat the infection. Oral antifungals are generally more effective for toenail infections.

Choice C reason:

Suggesting that the client use the ointment twice a day to be more effective is not recommended. Increasing the frequency of application of an ineffective treatment is unlikely to yield better results. The client needs a more effective treatment option, such as an oral antifungal.

Choice D reason:

Reassuring the client that treatment of fungus-infected toenails often takes several months is true but does not address the issue of using an ineffective treatment. While it is important to set realistic expectations about the duration of treatment, the client needs to be directed towards a more effective treatment option.

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Edited TextA client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) receives a new prescription for lorazepam. Which statement provided by the client requires additional instruction by the nurse?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease (CKD) started a prescription for epoetin alfa two months ago. Which client finding best indicates that the medication is effective?Reference Range:• Hemoglobin (Hgb): 14 to 18 g/dL (8.7 to 11.2 mmol/L)

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client with a fungal infection of the toenail reports to the nurse that the client has been applying an over-the-counter (OTC) triple antibiotic ointment to the infection daily for two weeks without any improvement. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Edited Text
A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) receives a new prescription for lorazepam. Which statement provided by the client requires additional instruction by the nurse?