Patient Data

Exhibits

The healthcare provider (HCP) has given the client a prescription for captopril.

Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statements by selecting from the lists of options provided.

Captopril is a(n)
dropdown
that works by
dropdown
.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"D"}

Captopril is an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor that works by vasodilation.

Choice A: Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor

Reason:

Captopril is classified as an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ACE inhibitors work by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. By inhibiting this conversion, ACE inhibitors reduce the levels of angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation, decreased blood pressure, and reduced workload on the heart. This mechanism is particularly beneficial in managing hypertension and heart failure. Additionally, ACE inhibitors like captopril help in reducing the progression of diabetic nephropathy by decreasing glomerular pressure.

Choice B: Aldosterone Agonist

Reason:

Aldosterone agonists are drugs that mimic the action of aldosterone, a hormone that increases sodium and water reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to increased blood volume and blood pressure. This is the opposite of what captopril does. Captopril, as an ACE inhibitor, actually reduces aldosterone secretion, leading to decreased sodium and water retention, which helps lower blood pressure. Therefore, captopril cannot be classified as an aldosterone agonist.

Choice C: Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker

Reason:

Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) work by blocking the action of angiotensin II at its receptor sites, preventing vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion. While ARBs and ACE inhibitors both target the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), they do so at different points. Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, not an ARB. ARBs include drugs like losartan and valsartan, which are used when patients cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors due to side effects like coug.

Choice D: Lowering the Heart Rate

Reason:

Lowering the heart rate is not the primary mechanism of action for captopril. This effect is more commonly associated with beta-blockers, which reduce heart rate and myocardial contractility to lower blood pressure and reduce cardiac workload. Captopril, on the other hand, primarily works through vasodilation by inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II. While it may have some indirect effects on heart rate by reducing blood pressure, this is not its main mechanism.

Choice E: Reducing Inflammation

Reason:

Reducing inflammation is not a primary action of captopril. Anti-inflammatory effects are typically associated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or corticosteroids. While there is some evidence that ACE inhibitors may have minor anti-inflammatory effects due to their impact on the RAAS, this is not their primary function. Captopril is mainly used for its vasodilatory effects to manage hypertension and heart failure.

Choice F: Diuresis

Reason:

Diuresis, or increased urine production, is not the primary mechanism of action for captopril. Diuretics, such as furosemide or hydrochlorothiazide, are specifically used to promote diuresis by acting on different parts of the renal tubules to increase the excretion of sodium and water. While captopril can lead to mild diuresis by reducing aldosterone levels, this is not its main therapeutic action.

Choice G: Vasodilation

Reason:

Vasodilation is the correct mechanism of action for captopril. By inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, captopril reduces vasoconstriction and promotes vasodilation. This leads to a decrease in blood pressure and an overall reduction in the workload on the heart. Vasodilation is a key therapeutic effect of ACE inhibitors, making them effective in treating conditions like hypertension and heart failure.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Inquiring about perceived anxiety is important because anxiety can contribute to sleep difficulties. However, in the context of a client taking dextroamphetamine-amphetamine, the timing of the medication is more directly related to sleep disturbances. While anxiety should be assessed, it is not the most critical factor in this scenario.

Choice B Reason:

Determining what time the dose is taken is crucial because dextroamphetamine-amphetamine is a stimulant that can interfere with sleep if taken too late in the day. Extended-release formulations are designed to provide a steady release of medication throughout the day, but taking the dose too late can lead to insomnia. Adjusting the timing of the dose can help mitigate sleep disturbances.

Choice C Reason:

Determining daily caffeine intake is relevant because caffeine is a stimulant that can also contribute to sleep difficulties. However, the primary concern in this scenario is the timing of the dextroamphetamine-amphetamine dose. While caffeine intake should be assessed, it is secondary to the medication timing.

Choice D Reason:

Asking about the client’s bedtime routine is important for understanding overall sleep hygiene. Good sleep hygiene practices can help improve sleep quality. However, in this context, the timing of the stimulant medication is more directly related to the reported sleep difficulties. Therefore, while bedtime routine is important, it is not the most critical assessment.

A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). B. Prepare to assist with chest tube insertion. C. Administer a second dose of naloxone. D. Determine Glasgow Coma Scale score.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is a critical action when a patient is in cardiac arrest or not breathing. However, in this scenario, the client is experiencing severe respiratory depression due to opioid overdose, and the first line of treatment is to administer naloxone. If the client does not respond to naloxone, then CPR may be necessary, but the immediate step is to address the opioid toxicity.

Choice B Reason:

Preparing to assist with chest tube insertion is not relevant in this context. Chest tubes are typically used to treat conditions like pneumothorax or pleural effusion. The client’s symptoms are due to opioid-induced respiratory depression, which requires naloxone administration rather than chest tube insertion.

Choice C Reason:

Administering a second dose of naloxone is the appropriate action. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression. Given the client’s critically low respiratory rate and oxygen saturation, a second dose of naloxone is necessary to counteract the opioid effects and restore normal breathing.

Choice D Reason:

Determining the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is useful for assessing the level of consciousness, but it does not directly address the immediate need to reverse the opioid-induced respiratory depression. The priority is to administer naloxone to improve the client’s respiratory status. Once the client is stabilized, further assessments, including the GCS score, can be conducted.

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Patient Data Exhibits The healthcare provider (HCP) has given the client a prescription for captopril. Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statements by selecting from the lists of options provided. Captopril is a(n) dropdown that works by dropdown.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client who is taking dextroamphetamine-amphetamine extended-release tablets for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) reports having difficulty sleeping at night. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse administers naloxone to a client with opioid-induced respiratory depression. One hour later, nursing assessment reveals that the client has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unable to be aroused. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client with chemotherapy-induced nausea receives a prescription for metoclopramide. Which adverse effect is most important for the nurse to report?

The nurse reviews the laboratory values. What question(s) can the nurse ask the client based on the laboratory results? Select all that apply.

A client receives a prescription for penicillin 1.2 million units IM. The available vial is labeled, “600,000 units/mL.” How many mL should the nurse administer? (Enter numeric value only.)

A client with nasal congestion receives a prescription for phenylephrine 10 mg PO every 4 hours. Which client condition should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the medication?

A client has a new prescription for diclofenac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Which information in the client’s history is of greatest concern to the nurse in monitoring the client’s response to this medication?

A client who is taking an oral contraceptive receives a new prescription for erythromycin. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

A client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes insipidus (DI) is receiving synthetic vasopressin intravenously. Which side effect of vasopressin reported by the client should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Which action should the nurse implement to assess the effectiveness of amlodipine?

Patient Data

Exhibits

The healthcare provider (HCP) has given the client a prescription for captopril.

Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statements by selecting from the lists of options provided.

Captopril is a(n)
dropdown
that works by
dropdown
.