Exhibits
The client is at risk of developing
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"E"}
Rationale for Correct Choices:
Chorioamnionitis is a bacterial infection of the amniotic fluid and fetal membranes, which can develop when the protective barrier is compromised due to prolonged rupture of membranes. This client reported clear fluid discharge the previous evening, indicating that the membranes have been ruptured for an extended period. The risk of infection increases significantly as time progresses. Additionally, the client exhibits signs of maternal restlessness and increased fetal heart rate, which could indicate an early response to infection or fetal distress.
Hemorrhage is a significant risk during labor, especially as the cervix approaches full dilation and the client exhibits increasing amounts of blood-tinged vaginal discharge. The client’s history of previous pregnancy loss and current cervical changes suggest that monitoring for postpartum hemorrhage will be essential, particularly after delivery.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices:
Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy is a severe complication associated with conditions such as placental abruption, preeclampsia, or amniotic fluid embolism. However, this client does not exhibit hallmark signs such as widespread bruising, uncontrolled bleeding, or abnormal clotting, making this a less likely immediate risk.
Seizures are characteristic of eclampsia, which is typically preceded by severe preeclampsia. While the client is restless and experiencing significant pain, there are no findings of hypertension, hyperreflexia, or neurological disturbances such as visual changes or altered mental status, making seizures an unlikely concern at this time.
Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy characterized by elevated blood pressure, proteinuria, and systemic symptoms. This client has stable blood pressure readings within the normal range, no evidence of proteinuria, and no indications of significant organ dysfunction, making preeclampsia an unlikely concern.
Dehydration is a potential concern due to the client’s nausea, vomiting, and lack of recent oral intake. However, there are no immediate signs of hemodynamic instability, such as hypotension or tachycardia, suggesting that dehydration is not the most pressing concern at this moment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Physicians' Desk Reference (PDR). The PDR is a comprehensive drug reference that provides essential information on medications, including indications, dosages, contraindications, adverse effects, and interactions. It is a reliable resource for nurses to review before administering an unfamiliar medication.
B. State Nurse Practice Act (NPA). The NPA defines the scope of nursing practice and legal responsibilities but does not provide specific drug information. While it guides nurses on legal and ethical aspects of medication administration, it is not a medication reference.
C. Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ). AHRQ focuses on improving healthcare quality and patient safety but does not serve as a primary source for drug-specific information. It provides guidelines and research on best practices rather than detailed medication data.
D. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN). QSEN aims to improve nursing education and competency in patient safety but does not offer detailed drug reference materials. It emphasizes principles such as evidence-based practice and quality improvement rather than specific medication details.
Correct Answer is ["D","E","F"]
Explanation
A. Diminished hearing. Hearing loss following a stapedectomy is expected due to postoperative swelling, packing in the ear, and fluid accumulation. Hearing typically improves as healing progresses. This does not require further action by the nurse.
B. Pupils. The preoperative and postoperative pupil assessments are similar (3.5 mm preoperatively and 3 mm postoperatively), and both are equal and reactive to light. No significant neurological change is noted, so this does not require further action.
C. Lung assessment. The lungs were clear bilaterally preoperatively, and there is no indication of respiratory compromise or abnormal lung sounds postoperatively. This does not require further action.
D. Facial nerve assessment. Facial nerve injury (cranial nerve VII dysfunction) is a potential complication of stapedectomy. The nurse should assess for asymmetry in facial movements such as difficulty smiling or drooping, weakness, or numbness, which could indicate facial nerve damage. This requires further action.
E. Vertigo. Postoperative vertigo and dizziness can occur due to disturbance of the inner ear during surgery. Severe or persistent vertigo may indicate labyrinthine injury or perilymph fistula, which could require medical intervention. This requires further action.
F. Pain rating. Postoperative pain is expected, but severe or increasing pain may indicate complications such as infection, excessive pressure in the middle ear, or improper prosthesis placement. Pain that is not relieved by analgesics requires further evaluation. This requires further action.
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