Exhibits
Which other labs would be helpful for the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? Select all that apply.
White blood cell differential
Hemoglobin A1C
Serum electrolytes
Urine culture
Anion gap
Urine ketones
Correct Answer : C,E,F
A. White blood cell differential. Although infection is a common precipitating factor for DKA, an elevated WBC count is common in DKA due to stress, dehydration, and inflammation rather than infection itself. While a WBC differential may be done if infection is suspected, it is not a primary test for DKA management.
B. Hemoglobin A1C. Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1c) reflects long-term glucose control (past 2-3 months) but does not provide immediate information about the current metabolic status or severity of DKA. While it may be useful in assessing overall diabetes management, it is not essential for acute DKA treatment.
C. Serum electrolytes. Patients with DKA experience significant electrolyte imbalances, particularly potassium depletion due to osmotic diuresis and insulin deficiency. Monitoring serum sodium, potassium, and bicarbonate is crucial for guiding fluid and electrolyte replacement therapy. Potassium levels may appear normal or high initially due to acidosis but typically drop with insulin administration.
D. Urine culture. A urine culture is only indicated if a urinary tract infection (UTI) is suspected as a trigger for DKA. However, routine urine culture is not required in every case of DKA unless there are symptoms of infection such as fever, dysuria, or pyuria.
E. Anion gap. DKA is a form of high anion gap metabolic acidosis, caused by the accumulation of ketones. The anion gap (AG) is calculated as (Na⁺ - [Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻]), with a value >12 mEq/L indicating metabolic acidosis. Monitoring the anion gap helps assess the severity of acidosis and guide treatment progress, as a decreasing anion gap suggests resolution of ketosis.
F. Urine ketones. Urine ketone testing helps confirm the presence of ketoacidosis, particularly in the initial stages of DKA diagnosis. While serum beta-hydroxybutyrate is a more accurate indicator of ketone levels, urine ketones remain useful for initial screening and monitoring treatment response as they decrease with appropriate management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Allow the family to touch and talk to the client. Family presence can provide emotional support for both the client and loved ones. Even though the client is sedated and has a low GCS, familiar voices and touch may reduce stress and anxiety. Allowing family interaction fosters comfort and connection during a critical time.
B. Reassess the client's vascular access. Maintaining secure and functional vascular access is essential for administering fluids, medications, and emergency interventions. Before transport, the nurse should confirm IV patency, ensure secure connections, and assess for signs of infiltration or malfunction. Trauma patients may require additional or larger bore IV access for fluid resuscitation or transfusion.
C. Assess neurological vital signs every 15 minutes. Frequent neurological assessments are crucial in head trauma patients with a low GCS to monitor for signs of worsening intracranial pressure, cerebral edema, or herniation. Changes in pupil response, motor function, or vital signs may indicate neurological deterioration requiring urgent intervention. Monitoring trends over time is necessary for early detection of complications.
D. Administer ophthalmic ointment. Clients with a low GCS often have impaired blinking, placing them at risk for corneal abrasions and dryness. Applying ophthalmic lubricant or artificial tears protects the cornea from injury and promotes eye health. Preventing exposure keratitis is essential in unconscious or sedated clients to avoid long-term ocular damage.
E. Apply soft bilateral wrist restraints for transport. Restraints are unnecessary because the client is sedated, intubated, and has a GCS of 6, meaning they cannot attempt self-extubation or interfere with care. Restraints should only be used if the client demonstrates a risk of harm. Standard transport protocols prioritize sedation and safety measures over restraints unless specifically required.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Respirations are shallow, labored, and 14 breaths/minute. A C5 spinal cord injury can impair diaphragmatic function and respiratory effort, leading to respiratory failure. Shallow and labored breathing suggests that the client is experiencing respiratory compromise, which can quickly progress to hypoventilation, hypoxia, and respiratory arrest. Immediate intervention, such as assisted ventilation or intubation, may be necessary to maintain adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications.
B. Has flaccid upper and lower extremities. Flaccid paralysis is an expected finding immediately after a high spinal cord injury due to spinal shock. While this condition requires ongoing monitoring, it is not an immediate life-threatening emergency like respiratory distress.
C. Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg and the apical heart rate is 68 beats/minute. These vital signs are within normal limits and do not indicate hemodynamic instability. Neurogenic shock, which can occur with high spinal injuries, typically presents with hypotension and bradycardia, but this client’s current BP and HR are stable.
D. Is unable to feel sensation in the arms and hands. Loss of sensation is expected with a cervical spinal cord injury due to nerve pathway disruption. While this finding is significant, it does not require immediate intervention compared to respiratory distress, which is the most urgent priority.
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