Following a six-week refresher course, a female nurse who has been out of the workforce for 10 years is assigned to a medical unit for orientation. After the first week of orientation, the charge nurse notes that the orientee is overwhelmed by her daily assignments, which are less than one-half the assignments of the regular staff, and the assignments are incomplete at the end of each day. The following week, which action is best for the charge nurse to take?
Wait until the end of the second week to see if the orientee is able to complete her assignments.
Assign the orientee to work with an experienced nurse who is a long-time, efficient employee.
Inform the supervisor that for client safety this nurse should be assigned to a slower-paced unit.
Talk to the orientee and ask her if she has considered working in a less stressful environment.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason: Waiting until the end of the second week to see if the orientee is able to complete her assignments is not the best action for the charge nurse to take. This would delay providing feedback and support to the orientee, who may feel frustrated and discouraged by her performance. The charge nurse should intervene as soon as possible to help the orientee improve her skills and confidence.
Choice B Reason: Assigning the orientee to work with an experienced nurse who is a long-time, efficient employee is the best action for the charge nurse to take. This would provide the orientee with a role model and a mentor who can guide her through the daily tasks, share tips and tricks, and offer constructive feedback and encouragement. The orientee would benefit from learning from someone who has mastered the workflow and expectations of the unit.
Choice C Reason: Informing the supervisor that for client safety this nurse should be assigned to a slower-paced unit is not the best action for the charge nurse to take. This would imply that the orientee is incompetent and unsuitable for the unit, which may damage her self-esteem and motivation. The charge nurse should first try to help the orientee adjust to the unit and develop her competencies before considering a transfer.
Choice D Reason: Talking to the orientee and asking her if she has considered working in a less stressful environment is not the best action for the charge nurse to take. This would suggest that the charge nurse has given up on the orientee and does not believe in her potential. The charge nurse should first try to understand the challenges and needs of the orientee and provide appropriate guidance and support before suggesting alternative career options.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is the best action because it describes the current situation of the client and alerts the family to a possible change in the client's status. The nurse should provide the most relevant and urgent information first using the SBAR communication.
Choice B Reason: This is not the first action because it does not address the current situation of the client. The nurse should verify the client's healthcare power of attorney, but this is not a priority at this time.
Choice C Reason: This is not the first action because it does not explain the cause of the client's confusion. The nurse should review the client's medications and assess for any adverse effects, but this is not a priority at this time.
Choice D Reason: This is not the first action because it provides background information that is not directly related to the current situation of the client. The nurse should give a brief history of the client's admission, but this can be done later.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This client has a very high BNP level, which indicates severe heart failure and fluid overload. The nurse should follow up with this client first, as they may need urgent interventions such as oxygen therapy, diuretics, and vasodilators.
Choice B Reason: This client has an INR within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy, which is usually between 2 and 3. The nurse should monitor this client for signs of bleeding or clotting, but they do not require immediate follow-up.
Choice C Reason: This client has a mildly elevated glucose level, which may be caused by the corticosteroids that
increase blood sugar. The nurse should check the client's blood glucose regularly and administer insulin as ordered, but they do not require immediate follow-up.
Choice D Reason: This client has a normal potassium level, which is within the reference range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L. The nurse should ensure that the client is ready for dialysis and avoid foods high in potassium, but they do not require immediate follow-up.
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