Exhibits
The nurse at the 9-month visit reviews the child's height, weight, and feeding progression history.
What should the nurse advise the parents concerning the child's nutrition? Select all that apply
Juice should be avoided in infancy and early childhood
The majority of the child's calories should be coming from the formula
The parents can add raw fruit, cheese, or firmly cooked vegetables to the die
The child should probably be eating more times per day
The parents should consider using a fluoride supplement
The child can now convert to animal milk instead of formula
Correct Answer : A,C,D
A) Correct- This is correct advice. Juice is not recommended for infants due to its high sugar content and lack of essential nutrients. It can contribute to excessive calorie intake and dental caries.
B) Incorrect- This is not accurate for a 9-month-old infant. By 9 months, most infants have already started to transition to solid foods, and their primary source of nutrition should be from a variety of solid foods, not formula.
C) Correct- This is correct advice. By 9 months, infants can begin to consume a variety of complementary foods to meet their nutritional needs. Adding raw fruit, cheese, or cooked vegetables can provide important nutrients and help introduce different tastes and textures.
D) Correct- As infants transition to solid foods, they typically require more frequent meals and snacks to meet their energy and nutrient needs. Breast milk or formula intake may also gradually decrease as solid foods are introduced.
E) Incorrect- Fluoride supplementation may be considered based on the fluoride content of the water supply and the child's risk of dental caries. However, this advice is not specific to the child's nutrition and feeding progression.
F. Incorrect- At 9 months, infants should not transition to whole cow's milk as their main source of nutrition. Breast milk or infant formula remains the primary source of nutrition, and cow's milk can be introduced as a beverage and ingredient in cooking after the first year of life.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice D
Choice A rationale: Splinting with a pillow may reduce discomfort during movement or coughing by stabilizing the incision site, but it does not address acute postoperative pain with sympathetic overdrive. The elevated heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure suggest a stress response mediated by catecholamines. Without analgesia, nociceptive signals continue to activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. While splinting is supportive, it lacks the pharmacologic efficacy needed to blunt nociceptive transmission at the spinal or supraspinal level.
Choice B rationale: Assessing IV patency is a procedural prerequisite for medication administration but not a therapeutic intervention in itself. It does not directly address the pathophysiology of acute pain or the sympathetic surge evidenced by tachycardia and hypertension. Pain activates ascending pathways via A-delta and C fibers, requiring pharmacologic blockade. IV access assessment is necessary but secondary to the urgent need for analgesia to prevent complications like hypoxia, hyperventilation, or delayed recovery.
Choice C rationale: High Fowler positioning may improve diaphragmatic excursion and reduce pulmonary complications, but it does not mitigate visceral or incisional pain. In fact, increased intra-abdominal pressure from upright posture may exacerbate pain at the surgical site. Pain perception involves central sensitization and peripheral nociceptor activation, which are unaffected by positioning. The client’s pale skin and elevated vitals indicate systemic distress requiring analgesic intervention, not postural adjustment. Thus, this choice lacks direct analgesic benefit.
Choice D rationale: IV analgesics act rapidly to inhibit nociceptive transmission at the spinal cord and brainstem levels. Opioids bind to mu receptors, reducing neurotransmitter release and hyperpolarizing neurons, thereby dampening pain signals. This intervention directly targets the physiologic cause of elevated heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Normal heart rate is 60–100 bpm, respiratory rate 12–20 breaths/min, and BP <120/80 mmHg. Prompt analgesia prevents complications like hypoxia, delayed healing, and neuroendocrine stress
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
To monitor for adverse effects from prasugrel, a platelet inhibitor, the nurse should prioritize assessing for bleeding or abnormal bleeding tendencies. Therefore, observing the color of urine is the most important assessment among the options provided.
Changes in urine color, such as the presence of blood or dark-colored urine, can indicate internal bleeding or bleeding in the urinary tract, which can be a potential adverse effect of platelet inhibitors. It is crucial to monitor for signs of bleeding to ensure the client's safety and intervene promptly if necessary.
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