If exhibited by a pregnant woman, what represents a positive sign of pregnancy?
Morning sickness.
Quickening.
Positive pregnancy test.
Fetal heartbeat auscultated with Doppler/fetoscope.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Morning sickness, which refers to nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, is a common symptom but not a definitive sign of pregnancy. It can also be caused by various other factors such as food poisoning or gastrointestinal issues. Therefore, it is not a positive sign of pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Quickening, which refers to the first fetal movements felt by the mother, is a subjective sign of pregnancy. It is not a definitive indication of pregnancy as it can be mistaken for other abdominal sensations. Quickening usually occurs between 18 to 22 weeks of gestation, making it a later sign and not an early positive sign of pregnancy.
Choice C rationale:
A positive pregnancy test, specifically a blood or urine test detecting human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), is a reliable indicator of pregnancy. However, it is a biochemical sign and not a physical sign. It does not directly confirm the presence of the fetus or its well-being, making it less specific than auscultating the fetal heartbeat.
Choice D rationale:
Fetal heartbeat auscultated with Doppler/fetoscope is a positive sign of pregnancy. The healthcare provider can hear the fetal heartbeat using a Doppler ultrasound device or fetoscope, confirming the presence of a viable pregnancy. This sign is considered positive because it directly indicates the presence of a developing fetus, providing reassurance about the pregnancy status. Fetal heartbeat can usually be detected around 10 to 12 weeks of gestation.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
With good control of maternal glucose levels, sudden and unexplained stillbirth is no longer a major concern. While controlling maternal glucose levels is important in diabetic pregnancies, it does not eliminate all risks, including the risk of stillbirth. However, the most significant cause of perinatal loss in diabetic pregnancies is congenital malformations. Poorly controlled diabetes during pregnancy can lead to structural abnormalities in the fetus, increasing the risk of perinatal loss.
Choice B rationale:
The most important cause of perinatal loss in diabetic pregnancy is congenital malformations. This is the correct answer. Poorly controlled diabetes increases the risk of congenital malformations in the fetus, making it a significant concern in diabetic pregnancies. Proper management of diabetes and prenatal care are essential to reduce this risk.
Choice C rationale:
Infants of mothers with diabetes have the same risks for respiratory distress syndrome because of careful monitoring. Infants of mothers with diabetes are at an increased risk of respiratory distress syndrome due to delayed lung maturation. Careful monitoring is essential, but it does not eliminate this risk. Proper management and timely interventions are necessary to minimize the impact of respiratory distress syndrome in these infants.
Choice D rationale:
At birth, the neonate of a diabetic mother is no longer at any greater risk. Infants of diabetic mothers are at increased risk for various complications, both during and after birth. These risks include hypoglycemia, respiratory distress syndrome, and hypocalcemia, among others. Close monitoring and appropriate interventions are required to ensure the well-being of the newborn.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Afterbirth hemorrhage, or postpartum hemorrhage (PPH), is a significant concern after childbirth. One of the common causes is retained placental fragments. When placental tissue is not completely expelled after delivery, it can lead to continuous bleeding. This condition requires prompt medical intervention, often through uterine exploration and removal of the retained tissue.
Choice B rationale:
Unrepaired vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but they are usually identified and repaired immediately after delivery. In this case, the woman gave birth 4 hours ago, so unrepaired lacerations would have been addressed during the delivery process.
Choice C rationale:
Uterine atony, which is the lack of normal uterine muscle tone, can cause postpartum hemorrhage. However, in this scenario, the woman was given Pitocin, which is an oxytocic medication used to prevent or treat uterine atony by inducing uterine contractions. Therefore, uterine atony is less likely to be the cause in this case.
Choice D rationale:
Puerperal infection, also known as postpartum infection, can cause fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling discharge. While it can lead to complications, it is not the most likely cause of significant bleeding in this situation.
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