In educating clients about ovarian cancer the nurse emphasizes death rates for ovarian cancer are high because:

there are no obvious symptoms or problems

radiation therapy is ineffective because the ovaries are located so deep within the pelvis

the causative cancer cell is resistant to chemotherapy or radiation

ovarian cancer occurs primarily among women over age 70 that also have other complicating health problems

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A

A) There are no obvious symptoms or problems: Ovarian cancer is often referred to as the "silent killer" because it tends to develop without noticeable symptoms in the early stages. When symptoms do appear, they are often vague and nonspecific, such as bloating, abdominal discomfort, or changes in bowel habits. By the time ovarian cancer is diagnosed, it is frequently at an advanced stage, making it more difficult to treat effectively. This lack of early, clear symptoms contributes significantly to the high death rate associated with the disease.

B) Radiation therapy is ineffective because the ovaries are located so deep within the pelvis: While ovarian cancer is located deep within the pelvis, radiation therapy can still be effective for certain types of tumors. However, the primary reason for high death rates is not the location of the ovaries, but the late-stage diagnosis and difficulty in detecting the cancer early.

C) The causative cancer cell is resistant to chemotherapy or radiation: While some ovarian cancer cells may exhibit resistance to treatment, this is not the main reason for the high mortality rate. The real issue is the lack of early detection, as ovarian cancer is often diagnosed when it has already spread beyond the ovaries. Early-stage ovarian cancer may be more responsive to treatment, but by the time symptoms are noticeable, the cancer is often advanced, which limits the effectiveness of chemotherapy and radiation.

D) Ovarian cancer occurs primarily among women over age 70 that also have other complicating health problems: Although the incidence of ovarian cancer increases with age, particularly after age 60, it is not the primary factor contributing to high death rates. Many women diagnosed with ovarian cancer are relatively healthy except for the cancer itself.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Intestines:
While abdominal trauma can affect the intestines, Kehr's sign, Cullen's sign, and Gray Turner's sign are more commonly associated with damage to the spleen rather than the intestines. Kehr's sign, in particular, is a hallmark of splenic injury, with pain referred to the left shoulder due to diaphragmatic irritation from blood in the peritoneum.

B) Liver:
Liver injuries often present with right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and elevated liver enzymes. While liver injuries can cause internal bleeding, Cullen's and Gray Turner's signs are more closely associated with retroperitoneal bleeding from the spleen rather than liver injuries. Kehr's sign, which is left-sided shoulder pain, would not typically indicate a liver injury.

C) Spleen:
The spleen is the most likely abdominal organ affected in this case due to the left-sided rib fractures. When the spleen is injured (often as a result of blunt trauma), it can cause intraperitoneal hemorrhage. This bleeding can irritate the diaphragm, leading to Kehr's sign, which presents as left shoulder pain. Additionally, Cullen's sign (periumbilical bruising) and Gray Turner's sign (flank bruising) are indicative of retroperitoneal bleeding, which can occur with splenic rupture or laceration.

D) Stomach:
While stomach injuries can occur with blunt abdominal trauma, they are less likely to cause the signs and symptoms seen in this patient (Kehr's, Cullen's, and Gray Turner's signs). Stomach trauma typically leads to pain and potential perforation, but it doesn't often cause the peritoneal bleeding patterns seen with splenic injuries.

A. Insertion of a cardioverter-defibrillator B. A medication regimen that includes nitrates C. Immediate cardiac transplantation D. Insertion of a drug eluting stent

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Insertion of a cardioverter-defibrillator:
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a condition characterized by abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, particularly the septum, which can lead to obstruction of blood flow and contribute to the development of arrhythmias. The most concerning arrhythmias in HCM include ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation, both of which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. A cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is a device that monitors the heart's rhythm and can deliver a shock to restore normal rhythm in the event of a life-threatening arrhythmia.

B) A medication regimen that includes nitrates:
Nitrates are vasodilators commonly used in the treatment of conditions like angina and heart failure. However, nitrates are generally avoided in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy because they can exacerbate the condition by decreasing preload and increasing the outflow tract obstruction due to the thickened heart muscle.

C) Immediate cardiac transplantation:
Cardiac transplantation is a treatment for end-stage heart failure, typically in patients who have not responded to medical or surgical treatments. While hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can lead to heart failure, it is not the first line treatment for dysrhythmias or complications from the disease.

D) Insertion of a drug-eluting stent:
Drug-eluting stents are used to prevent restenosis (narrowing) of coronary arteries after percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD). However, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is not caused by coronary artery disease.

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In educating clients about ovarian cancer the nurse emphasizes death rates for ovarian cancer are high because:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

In providing care to a patient who sustained left sided 10th through 12th rib fractures, the nurse notes Kehr's Cullen's and Gray Turner's signs during assessment. Which abdominal organ is most likely to be affected by this trauma?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is caring for client who is diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which medical Intervention should the nurse anticipate for this client for the complications of dysrhythmias?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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