In educating clients about ovarian cancer the nurse emphasizes death rates for ovarian cancer are high because:
there are no obvious symptoms or problems
radiation therapy is ineffective because the ovaries are located so deep within the pelvis
the causative cancer cell is resistant to chemotherapy or radiation
ovarian cancer occurs primarily among women over age 70 that also have other complicating health problems
Correct Answer : A
A) There are no obvious symptoms or problems: Ovarian cancer is often referred to as the "silent killer" because it tends to develop without noticeable symptoms in the early stages. When symptoms do appear, they are often vague and nonspecific, such as bloating, abdominal discomfort, or changes in bowel habits. By the time ovarian cancer is diagnosed, it is frequently at an advanced stage, making it more difficult to treat effectively. This lack of early, clear symptoms contributes significantly to the high death rate associated with the disease.
B) Radiation therapy is ineffective because the ovaries are located so deep within the pelvis: While ovarian cancer is located deep within the pelvis, radiation therapy can still be effective for certain types of tumors. However, the primary reason for high death rates is not the location of the ovaries, but the late-stage diagnosis and difficulty in detecting the cancer early.
C) The causative cancer cell is resistant to chemotherapy or radiation: While some ovarian cancer cells may exhibit resistance to treatment, this is not the main reason for the high mortality rate. The real issue is the lack of early detection, as ovarian cancer is often diagnosed when it has already spread beyond the ovaries. Early-stage ovarian cancer may be more responsive to treatment, but by the time symptoms are noticeable, the cancer is often advanced, which limits the effectiveness of chemotherapy and radiation.
D) Ovarian cancer occurs primarily among women over age 70 that also have other complicating health problems: Although the incidence of ovarian cancer increases with age, particularly after age 60, it is not the primary factor contributing to high death rates. Many women diagnosed with ovarian cancer are relatively healthy except for the cancer itself.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr:
This is a positive outcome during fluid resuscitation for burn patients. Adequate urine output is a key indicator of proper renal perfusion and fluid balance. A urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr is considered optimal for burn patients during the first 24-48 hours of resuscitation. It suggests that the kidneys are receiving sufficient blood flow and that the patient is responding appropriately to the fluids being administered.
B) Serum sodium level 149 mEq/L (normal 135-145):
A serum sodium level of 149 mEq/L is high and indicates hypernatremia, which is a common complication of excessive fluid resuscitation, particularly with the use of crystalloids. Hypernatremia can lead to cerebral edema, altered mental status, and other severe complications. Therefore, this finding would suggest improper fluid management and would not be considered a positive outcome.
C) Blood pressure 82/54:
A blood pressure of 82/54 is hypotensive, which is concerning in a burn patient. Hypotension indicates inadequate tissue perfusion, potentially leading to shock and organ failure. While low blood pressure may occur in the initial stages of resuscitation due to the rapid shifts in fluid, a sustained low blood pressure is not a positive outcome.
D) Heart rate 124 beats per minute:
A heart rate of 124 beats per minute is tachycardic and suggests that the patient is compensating for hypovolemia or inadequate circulatory volume, possibly due to insufficient fluid resuscitation. Although an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism in the initial stages of burn resuscitation, sustained tachycardia indicates ongoing volume depletion or inadequate perfusion and is not an ideal outcome.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Hypoglycemic event often develops:
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant, and while it can affect glucose metabolism, hypoglycemia is not a typical consequence of abruptly stopping the drug. This is not a primary concern when discontinuing phenytoin therapy. Hypoglycemia is more commonly associated with medications like insulin or sulfonylureas, not anticonvulsants like phenytoin.
B) Physical dependency on the drug develops over time:
Phenytoin does not cause physical dependence in the way that some other substances (e.g., alcohol, opioids) can. While the body can become used to a medication over time, and withdrawal symptoms can occur, the risk of physical dependence is not the main reason why phenytoin should not be stopped suddenly.
C) A heart block is likely to develop:
Phenytoin is known to have effects on cardiac conduction, and it can cause heart rhythm disturbances like bradycardia or a prolonged PR interval, especially with toxicity. However, the risk of a heart block developing due to abrupt discontinuation of phenytoin is not the primary concern.
D) Status epilepticus may develop:
The most serious risk of suddenly stopping phenytoin, or any anticonvulsant, is the potential for status epilepticus. Status epilepticus is a medical emergency where seizures occur continuously without recovery in between, which can be life-threatening. Abruptly discontinuing phenytoin can lead to a rebound increase in seizure activity, which can result in status epilepticus.
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