In the early 20th century, a frontal lobotomy was a common treatment for violent behaviors. Which descriptions procedure is accurate?
A surgical procedure that drills holes in the front of the skull to drain fluid.
A surgical procedure that severs the frontal lobes of the brain from the thalamus.
A procedure that delivers an electrical stimulus to the frontal lobes of the brain.
A surgical procedure that inserts implants into the frontal lobes of the brain.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Drilling holes in the skull to drain fluid is more aligned with procedures for treating conditions like hydrocephalus (accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain) rather than a lobotomy. A lobotomy involves more invasive alterations to brain tissue.
B. In a prefrontal lobotomy, the surgeon would sever the connections between the frontal lobes and other parts of the brain, including the thalamus, to disrupt neural pathways. This was done in an attempt to alter behavior and mood. The procedure aimed to modify the function of the frontal lobes to reduce symptoms of severe mental disorders, but it often had significant and detrimental side effects.
C. This description refers to electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), not a lobotomy. ECT involves applying electrical currents to the brain to induce controlled seizures and is used to treat severe depression and other mental health conditions. It is different from the surgical approach of a lobotomy.
D. This description does not accurately describe a lobotomy. The lobotomy procedure involved cutting or damaging brain tissue rather than inserting implants. The insertion of implants into the brain is not characteristic of lobotomy and is not a common practice in the historical context of this procedure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This is an inappropriate and potentially harmful response. Restraints should be used as a last resort and only under specific circumstances. In this case, they are not necessary and could escalate the situation.
B. Attempting to reason with an agitated client is unlikely to be effective and could further escalate the situation.
C. Seclusion should be used as a last resort and only under specific circumstances. In this case, it is not necessary and could increase the client's agitation and sense of isolation.
D. This is the most appropriate response as it sets a clear boundary, gives the client time to calm down, and allows the nurse to return when the situation is more stable.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Projection involves attributing one’s own unacceptable feelings or thoughts onto another person. However, in this case, the patient’s tantrum and crying are more about their own inability to handle the refusal rather than projecting feelings onto others.
B. Repression is a defense mechanism where distressing thoughts or feelings are unconsciously blocked from entering awareness. For instance, if the patient were to push aside their feelings of disappointment about not receiving the diet pills without expressing them, that would be repression.
C. Denial involves refusing to accept reality or facts that are distressing or threatening. However, the primary behavior in this situation is the tantrum and crying, which are more indicative of another defense mechanism rather than outright denial.
D. Regression is a defense mechanism where an individual reverts to behaviors characteristic of an
earlier developmental stage in response to stress or conflict. The patient’s crying and tantrum can be seen as regressive behavior because it reflects a return to more childlike or immature ways of handling frustration, similar to how a child might react to not getting what they want.
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