Isosorbide mononitrate modified release formula is structured to provide a nitrate free period. The nurse understands that the rationale for this period is to:
decrease allergic reactions
decrease tolerance to effects
prevent reflex tachycardia
increase absorption
The Correct Answer is B
A. Decrease allergic reactions: Nitrate-free periods are not primarily designed to address allergic reactions.
B. Decrease tolerance to effects: Nitrates, including isosorbide mononitrate, can lead to the development of tolerance when used continuously. The nitrate-free period helps to minimize this tolerance, allowing the medication to remain effective over time.
C. Prevent reflex tachycardia: While nitrate use can sometimes cause reflex tachycardia, the nitrate-free interval is not specifically aimed at preventing this.
D. Increase absorption: The nitrate-free period does not influence the absorption of the medication itself.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Avoid needle sticks or other invasive procedures as much as possible: This is the most appropriate action for a client with thrombocytopenia. Since thrombocytopenia involves a low platelet count, the risk of bleeding is increased, and minimizing invasive procedures helps prevent complications.
B. Hold all stool softeners and laxatives until otherwise: This statement is not appropriate. Clients with thrombocytopenia should avoid straining during bowel movements, which can be facilitated by the use of stool softeners or laxatives if necessary.
C. Encourage vigorous tooth brushing with a soft bristle toothbrush: This is not advisable. While using a soft-bristled toothbrush is recommended, vigorous brushing could cause gum bleeding. Gentle oral hygiene practices should be emphasized instead.
D. Obtain a core temperature every 8 hours: While monitoring temperature is important, it is not specific to thrombocytopenia management. Other vital signs may be monitored more frequently, but this action does not directly address the primary concern of bleeding risk.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Withhold the dose and reassess the blood pressure in 30 minutes: Given that the client's blood pressure is 90/60, which indicates hypotension, withholding the furosemide is the safest initial action. Administering a diuretic in the context of low blood pressure could exacerbate the hypotensive state, potentially leading to further complications. It is prudent to reassess the blood pressure before proceeding with the medication.
B) Administer the medication and notify the healthcare provider of the blood pressure: Administering furosemide despite the hypotensive reading may pose significant risks to the client. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, the immediate priority should be to ensure the client's safety by withholding the medication until the blood pressure can be reassessed.
C) Administer the dose and continue to monitor the vital signs: This approach is not advisable due to the low blood pressure. Administering the medication without addressing the hypotension could lead to a further drop in blood pressure and increase the risk of adverse effects such as dizziness or syncope.
D) Call the healthcare provider to obtain an order for oral furosemide: While oral furosemide may be a reasonable alternative, the priority is to manage the client's current hypotensive state. The immediate action should focus on reassessing the blood pressure and ensuring the client is stable before considering alternative routes of medication administration.
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