“A nurse is assessing a patient who is 3 days postpartum.

Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?”

“Heart rate 89/min.”.

“Cool, clammy skin.”.

“BP 120/70 mm Hg.”.

“Moderate lochia serosa.”.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale
A heart rate of 89/min is within the normal range for an adult, and would not typically be a cause for concern.
Choice B rationale
Cool, clammy skin can be a sign of shock or other serious conditions such as hypoperfusion or inadequate blood flow, which could be a sign of hemorrhage or other circulatory issues. This is a significant finding that should be reported to the provider immediately. Hypoperfusion can lead to inadequate oxygen supply to the body’s organs and tissues, which can result in organ failure and other serious complications. Therefore, any signs of hypoperfusion, including cool, clammy skin, should be reported to the provider immediately for further evaluation and treatment.
Choice C rationale
A blood pressure of 120/70 mm Hg is within the normal range for an adult, and would not typically be a cause for concern.
Choice D rationale
Moderate lochia serosa is a normal finding in a woman who is 3 days postpartum. Lochia serosa is the term for the pink or brownish discharge that occurs after lochia rubra, the bright red discharge that occurs immediately after childbirth. Lochia serosa typically begins about 3- 4 days after delivery and can continue for up to 10 days postpartum.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale
In the case of intrauterine fetal demise at 36 weeks of gestation, the most common treatment option is induction of labor.
Choice B rationale
An immediate cesarean birth is typically not the first choice of treatment for intrauterine fetal demise unless there are other complications.
Choice C rationale
Methotrexate is used to treat ectopic pregnancies, not intrauterine fetal demise.
Choice D rationale
Dilation with suction curettage is typically used for early pregnancy loss, not late-term intrauterine fetal demise.

A. A client who has gestational diabetes mellitus B. A client who had a previous stillbirth C. A client who had a nonreactive nonstress test D. A client who has a previous classical incision

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Gestational diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication for a contraction stress test. This condition affects how the mother’s body uses glucose (sugar) during pregnancy, but it does not interfere with the ability to perform a contraction stress test.
Choice B rationale
A previous stillbirth is not a contraindication for a contraction stress test. A stillbirth refers to the loss of a baby after 20 weeks of pregnancy. While this is a significant event, it does not prevent the mother from undergoing a contraction stress test in a subsequent pregnancy.
Choice C rationale
A nonreactive nonstress test is not a contraindication for a contraction stress test. A nonreactive nonstress test indicates that the baby’s heart rate does not speed up (or “react”) as it should when the baby moves. However, this result does not prevent the mother from undergoing a contraction stress test.
Choice D rationale
A previous classical incision is a contraindication for a contraction stress test. A classical incision refers to a vertical cut in the upper part of the uterus, which is typically used during a cesarean section. This type of incision increases the risk of uterine rupture, which can be life- threatening for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, a contraction stress test, which induces contractions, should not be performed due to the risk of uterine rupture.

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“A nurse is assessing a patient who is 3 days postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?”

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

“A nurse is caring for a patient who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a confirmed intrauterine fetal demise. Which of the following treatment options should the nurse anticipate the provider to discuss with the patient?”

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

In a prenatal clinic, a nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which client should the nurse identify as having a contraindication for a contraction stress test?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hour postpartum following a vaginal birth. The nurse notes that the client has excessive vaginal bleeding. What should the nurse do first?

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who had a vaginal delivery 3 hours ago.Which of the following findings place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage? (Select all that apply)

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A nurse is educating the parents of a newborn about the Plastibell circumcision technique. Which piece of information should the nurse include in the teaching?

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“A nurse is assessing a patient who is 3 days postpartum.

Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?”