“A nurse is caring for a patient who is at 37 weeks of gestation and is being tested for Group B Streptococcus (GBS). The patient is multigravida and multipara with no history of GBS.
She asks the nurse why the test was not conducted earlier in her pregnancy. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?”
“There was no indication of GBS in your earlier prenatal testing.”.
“Your previous deliveries were all negative for GBS.”.
“You didn’t report any symptoms of GBS during your pregnancy.”.
“GBS testing is typically done between 35-37 weeks of gestation.”. .
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
While it’s true that there may not have been any indication of GBS in earlier prenatal testing, this does not explain why the test was not conducted earlier. GBS can come and go in the body, so a negative test earlier in pregnancy does not guarantee that the woman will still be GBS-negative later in pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Even if previous deliveries were all negative for GBS, this does not mean that the woman will not have GBS in this pregnancy. GBS can come and go in the body, so each pregnancy is considered separately.
Choice C rationale
GBS is usually asymptomatic in adults, so the woman would not typically report any symptoms of GBS during her pregnancy. This does not explain why the test was not conducted earlier.
Choice D rationale
GBS testing is typically done between 35-37 weeks of gestation. This is because GBS can come and go in the body, so testing during this time frame gives the best prediction of whether or not the woman will have GBS at the time of delivery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
In the event of shoulder dystocia during the second stage of labor, the provider may instruct the nurse to perform the McRoberts maneuver. This involves assisting the client in pulling their knees toward their abdomen. This position effectively flattens the sacrum, changes the angle of the pelvic inlet, and allows more room for the baby to pass through the birth canal.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Applying oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula may be beneficial for a client experiencing hypotension following the administration of epidural anesthesia, but it is not the primary action a nurse should take.
Choice B rationale
Massaging the client’s fundus is not an appropriate action for a nurse to take when a client is hypotensive following the administration of epidural anesthesia.
Choice C rationale
Turning the client to a side-lying position is a recommended intervention for hypotension following epidural anesthesia. This position helps improve venous return to the heart and can help alleviate hypotension by reducing aortocaval compression.
Choice D rationale
Assisting the client to empty their bladder may be beneficial in certain circumstances, but it is not the primary action a nurse should take when a client is hypotensive following the administration of epidural anesthesia.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.