“A nurse is caring for a patient who is at 37 weeks of gestation and is being tested for Group B Streptococcus (GBS). The patient is multigravida and multipara with no history of GBS.
She asks the nurse why the test was not conducted earlier in her pregnancy. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?”
“There was no indication of GBS in your earlier prenatal testing.”.
“Your previous deliveries were all negative for GBS.”.
“You didn’t report any symptoms of GBS during your pregnancy.”.
“GBS testing is typically done between 35-37 weeks of gestation.”. .
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
While it’s true that there may not have been any indication of GBS in earlier prenatal testing, this does not explain why the test was not conducted earlier. GBS can come and go in the body, so a negative test earlier in pregnancy does not guarantee that the woman will still be GBS-negative later in pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Even if previous deliveries were all negative for GBS, this does not mean that the woman will not have GBS in this pregnancy. GBS can come and go in the body, so each pregnancy is considered separately.
Choice C rationale
GBS is usually asymptomatic in adults, so the woman would not typically report any symptoms of GBS during her pregnancy. This does not explain why the test was not conducted earlier.
Choice D rationale
GBS testing is typically done between 35-37 weeks of gestation. This is because GBS can come and go in the body, so testing during this time frame gives the best prediction of whether or not the woman will have GBS at the time of delivery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Holding the finger above the heart prior to puncture does not affect the accuracy of a blood glucose test.
Choice B rationale
Smearing the blood onto the reagent strip can result in inaccurate readings.
Choice C rationale
Puncturing the finger while still damp with antiseptic solution can cause discomfort and potentially contaminate the sample.
Choice D rationale
Selecting the lateral side of the finger for puncture is recommended because it is less painful and has good blood flow.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Aspirin is generally not recommended for postpartum pain management due to its anticoagulant properties, which can increase the risk of bleeding. Furthermore, if the mother is breastfeeding, aspirin can pass into breast milk and potentially harm the baby.
Choice B rationale
Meperidine is a strong opioid medication that is typically reserved for severe pain. It is not usually the first choice for postpartum pain management due to its potential side effects and the risk of dependency.
Choice C rationale
Fentanyl citrate is a potent opioid that is typically used for severe pain and is often used in anesthesia. It is not usually used for routine postpartum pain management due to its potency and the risk of side effects and dependency.
Choice D rationale
Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is commonly used for postpartum pain management. It is effective for relieving perineal pain and uterine cramping, and it is safe for use in breastfeeding mothers.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.