Lung Cancer with Thoracentesis
A nurse is caring for a 75-year-old male client in the medical-surgical unit who is experiencing difficulty breathing and shortness of breath following a thoracentesis.
The nurse is caring for the client following a thoracentesis. Select the 3 findings that require immediate follow-up.
Decreased lung sounds
Puncture site dry
Subcutaneous emphysema
Oxygen saturation of 95%
Correct Answer : A,C,D
Choice A rationale: Decreased lung sounds following thoracentesis may indicate a pneumothorax, especially when combined with other signs such as shortness of breath or changes in respiratory effort. Pneumothorax is a known complication post-thoracentesis due to lung collapse or puncture. Immediate assessment and chest x-ray are needed to rule this out. Lung sounds should improve after fluid removal, not diminish, making this a critical finding requiring follow-up.
Choice B rationale: A dry puncture site is an expected and normal finding following thoracentesis. It indicates that there is no ongoing fluid or air leakage from the site. The integrity of the dressing and absence of drainage suggest proper wound healing and that the procedure was done correctly. This finding does not require immediate follow-up and is actually a sign of stable post-procedural status.
Choice C rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema indicates air has leaked into the subcutaneous tissue, often from the pleural space due to lung injury or puncture. It presents as swelling and a crackling sensation under the skin and is a potential sign of pneumothorax. It must be followed up immediately because it may progress or indicate a more serious underlying pulmonary complication that requires prompt evaluation and potential intervention.
Choice D rationale: An oxygen saturation of 95% is generally acceptable in most patients, but in this specific context—post-thoracentesis in a patient with a history of lung cancer and repeated pleural effusions—this value could mask early respiratory compromise. The patient initially had a saturation of 91%, and although this improved, the presence of ongoing respiratory symptoms like labored breathing or other abnormal signs warrants close monitoring and possibly further evaluation to ensure respiratory stability.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Packed RBCs are administered to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in cases of significant blood loss or severe anemia. While bleeding is a concern in hemophilia A, the primary issue is the lack of clotting factor VIII, not a deficiency in red blood cells per se, making this a secondary intervention if severe bleeding occurs.
Choice B rationale
Fresh frozen plasma contains all coagulation factors, but its use is less specific and carries a higher risk of volume overload and transfusion reactions compared to targeted factor replacement. Recombinant antihemophilic factor provides the specific missing factor VIII without the risks associated with plasma.
Choice C rationale
Prophylactic antibiotics are given to prevent bacterial infections, particularly in surgical procedures where there is a risk of contamination. While general surgical principles might involve antibiotics, the immediate and primary concern for an adolescent with hemophilia A undergoing extractions is preventing excessive bleeding due to the clotting factor deficiency.
Choice D rationale
Hemophilia A is characterized by a deficiency of functional factor VIII. Recombinant antihemophilic factor is a genetically engineered product that provides the missing clotting factor, directly addressing the underlying hemostatic defect. Administering this product pre-procedure ensures adequate clotting factor levels to prevent excessive bleeding during the wisdom teeth extractions.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Alteplase (tPA) is a thrombolytic agent, meaning it dissolves existing blood clots by activating plasminogen to form plasmin, which then breaks down fibrin. It is used to treat acute thrombotic events like pulmonary embolism or ischemic stroke, but it is not typically used for prophylactic prevention of DVT due to its significant bleeding risk.
Choice B rationale
Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). It exerts its anticoagulant effect primarily by potentiating the action of antithrombin on Factor Xa, thereby inhibiting the coagulation cascade. LMWHs are highly effective and commonly used for the prophylactic prevention of deep vein thrombosis following orthopedic surgeries, including total knee replacement, due to their predictable pharmacokinetics.
Choice C rationale
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K epoxide reductase, an enzyme necessary for the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X). While effective for long-term anticoagulation, its delayed onset of action and need for frequent INR monitoring make it less suitable for immediate postoperative DVT prophylaxis compared to LMWHs.
Choice D rationale
Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that works by selectively inhibiting the binding of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to its receptor on platelet surfaces, thereby preventing platelet activation and aggregation. It is used to prevent arterial thrombotic events like myocardial infarction and stroke, but it is not the primary medication for preventing venous thromboembolism such as DVT.
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