Maria is pregnant for the second time. She has a 5-year-old daughter who was born at 39 weeks gestation. What is her GTPAL?
G1. TO. PO. AO L
G2, TO, P1. AD. L
G3, TO, PO, AO, LO
G2, T1, PO, AO, L1
The Correct Answer is D
A. G1, T0, P0, A0, L1: Maria is in her second pregnancy, not her first, so the G (Gravida) should be 2.
B. G2, T0, P1, A0, L1: Maria delivered her child at term (39 weeks), not preterm, so "P" (preterm births) should be 0, and "T" (term births) should be 1.
C. G3, T0, P0, A0, L0: Maria is only in her second pregnancy, so "G" should be 2, and she has one living child, so "L" should be 1.
D. G2, T1, P0, A0, L1. "G" (Gravida) is 2 because she is pregnant for the second time. "T" (Term) is 1 because she had one term pregnancy that resulted in the birth of her daughter. "P" (Preterm) is 0 because she has no preterm births. "A" (Abortions) is 0 because she has had no miscarriages or abortions. "L" (Living children) is 1 because she has one living child.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hyperemesis gravidarum: Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting that leads to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and weight loss. However, this client has not experienced weight loss, and the prune-colored discharge is not a sign of this condition.
B. Preterm labor: Preterm labor typically involves contractions and cervical dilation. At 4 months, preterm labor is not likely, and the prune-colored discharge and larger-than-expected fundal height are not signs of preterm labor.
C. Hydatidiform mole: A hydatidiform mole (molar pregnancy) is characterized by abnormal placental development, leading to larger-than-expected fundal height, continued nausea and vomiting, and prune-colored vaginal discharge due to bleeding from the uterus. These findings align with the client's symptoms.
D. Threatened abortion: A threatened abortion involves vaginal bleeding in early pregnancy without the expulsion of the fetus. This condition is typically associated with cramping and a smaller fundal height, which is not seen in this case.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Prepare the client for admission to the hospital. A positive contraction stress test indicates that there are late decelerations of the fetal heart rate with contractions, suggesting that the fetus may not tolerate labor well. Hospital admission is often necessary for further monitoring and possible intervention.
B. Document the findings as expected in the client records. A positive contraction stress test is an abnormal finding, not an expected one. It indicates potential fetal distress and requires immediate attention.
C. Repeat the contraction stress test in 24 hr. If the test is positive, further immediate action is needed, such as close monitoring or possible delivery, rather than waiting 24 hours to repeat the test.
D. Check the client's cervix for dilation. While cervical dilation may be assessed if the client is in labor, this action does not address the immediate concern of fetal distress indicated by a positive contraction stress test.
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