A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicated that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the nurse document in this client's record?
4-1-2-0-3
3-1-1-0-3
2-1-2-1-2
3-1-2-0-3
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is: B. 3-1-1-0-3.
Choice A reason:
This option suggests the woman has been pregnant four times, which is incorrect. She has had three pregnancies: one set of twins (counted as one pregnancy) and two singletons.
Choice B reason:
This is the correct option. The woman has had three pregnancies (Gravida = 3), one full-term delivery (Term = 1), one preterm delivery (the twins, Preterm = 1), no abortions (Abortions = 0), and three living children (Living = 3).
Choice C reason:
This option incorrectly suggests two preterm deliveries and one abortion, neither of which is indicated in the woman's history.
Choice D reason:
This option incorrectly suggests two preterm deliveries (the twins are counted as one preterm delivery) and does not accurately reflect the woman's history.
GTPAL stands for Gravida (total number of pregnancies), Term births (deliveries after 37 weeks), Preterm births (deliveries between 20-36 weeks), Abortions (losses before 20 weeks), and Living children. Normal ranges: Term (≥37 weeks), Preterm (20-36 weeks)
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Anxiety due to hospitalization is not a likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. Anxiety can cause some symptoms, such as headache, palpitations, or sweating, but it does not cause visual changes or epigastric pain. Anxiety is also not a common complication of pregnancy-induced hypertension, which is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine.
Choice B reason: Effects of magnesium sulfate are not a likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. Magnesium sulfate is a medication used to prevent seizures and lower blood pressure in patients with pregnancy-induced hypertension. It can cause some side effects, such as flushing, nausea, or drowsiness, but it does not cause headache, visual changes, or epigastric pain. In fact, magnesium sulfate can help relieve these symptoms by reducing the cerebral edema and vasospasm caused by pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Choice C reason: Worsening disease and impending convulsion are the most likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. These signs indicate that the patient is developing severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, which are life-threatening complications of pregnancy-induced hypertension. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and signs of organ damage, such as headache, visual changes, epigastric pain, or decreased urine output. Eclampsia is the occurrence of seizures in a patient with preeclampsia. These conditions can lead to stroke, bleeding, placental abruption, or fetal distress, and require immediate medical attention.
Choice D reason: Gastrointestinal upset is not a likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. Gastrointestinal upset can cause some symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain, but it does not cause headache, visual changes, or epigastric pain. Gastrointestinal upset is also not a common complication of pregnancy-induced hypertension, which is a condition that affects the blood vessels and organs, not the digestive system.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Vibroacoustic stimulation is a technique that uses sound to stimulate the fetus and elicit a response. It is sometimes used in conjunction with the nonstress test (NST), not the CST. The NST measures the fetal heart rate (FHR) in response to fetal movement, while the CST measures the FHR in response to uterine contractions.
Choice B reason: A negative CST result means that the FHR does not show any late decelerations during at least three contractions in a 10-minute period. Late decelerations are decreases in the FHR that begin after the peak of a contraction and return to the baseline after the contraction ends. They indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which means that the placenta is not delivering enough oxygen and nutrients to the fetus. A negative CST result is reassuring and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and can tolerate labor².
Choice C reason: The CST is not an invasive test, as it does not involve inserting any instruments or devices into the uterus or the fetus. However, it does require stimulating contractions, either by giving the pregnant woman oxytocin (a hormone that causes uterine contractions) or by having her rub her nipples (which also releases oxytocin). The contractions can be uncomfortable and may trigger preterm labor in some cases.
Choice D reason: The CST is not more effective than the NST if the membranes have already been ruptured. In fact, the CST is contraindicated (not recommended) in women who have ruptured membranes, as it can increase the risk of infection and bleeding. The NST is a safer and simpler alternative to the CST, as it does not require stimulating contractions. However, the NST may not be as reliable as the CST in detecting fetal compromise.
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