A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that:
she will be unable to conceive in the future.
a D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception.
bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment.
hemorrhage is the major concern.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: She will not be unable to conceive in the future, as ectopic pregnancy does not necessarily affect her fertility. However, she may have a higher risk of having another ectopic pregnancy or infertility if the fallopian tube is damaged or removed.
Choice B reason: A D&C (dilation and curettage) will not be performed to remove the products of conception, as this procedure is used to empty the uterus, not the fallopian tube. The treatment for ectopic pregnancy may include medication, surgery, or expectant management, depending on the location, size, and viability of the pregnancy.
Choice C reason: Bed rest and analgesics are not the recommended treatment for ectopic pregnancy, as they do not address the underlying cause or prevent complications. Ectopic pregnancy is a medical emergency that requires prompt intervention to prevent rupture, bleeding, and shock.
Choice D reason: Hemorrhage is the major concern for ectopic pregnancy, as the pregnancy can rupture the fallopian tube and cause severe bleeding into the abdominal cavity. This can lead to hypovolemic shock, which is a life-threatening condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless uterine contractions that occur throughout pregnancy. They are a probable sign of pregnancy, not a positive sign.
Choice B reason: Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife is a positive sign of pregnancy, as it confirms the presence of a living fetus in the uterus. It can be detected as early as 16 to 20 weeks of gestation.
Choice C reason: A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy, as it indicates the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the urine or blood. However, it is not a definitive sign, as other conditions can cause elevated hCG levels.
Choice D reason: Quickening is the first perception of fetal movement by the mother, which usually occurs between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation. It is a presumptive sign of pregnancy, not a positive sign.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A previous birth of a large infant (macrosomia) is a risk factor for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). A large infant may indicate that the mother had high blood glucose levels during pregnancy, which can cause the fetus to grow larger than normal. Women who have had a large infant are more likely to develop GDM in subsequent pregnancies.
Choice B reason: Underweight before pregnancy is not a risk factor for GDM. In fact, being overweight or obese before pregnancy is a risk factor for GDM, as it increases insulin resistance and makes it harder for the body to use glucose effectively.
Choice C reason: A previous diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus is not a risk factor for GDM. It is a contraindication for GDM, as it means that the woman already has diabetes before pregnancy. GDM is a condition that develops during pregnancy and usually resolves after delivery.
Choice D reason: Maternal age younger than 25 years is not a risk factor for GDM. In fact, being older than 25 years is a risk factor for GDM, as it increases the risk of insulin resistance and other metabolic changes that can affect glucose tolerance.
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