The healthcare provider prescribes propylthiouracil (PTU) and Lugol’s solution, a strong iodine solution, for a client with hyperthyroidism. How should the nurse schedule the administration of these medications?

Administer iodine one hour before PTU.

Schedule both medications at bedtime.

Administer both drugs together with a meal.

Give parenteral dose once every 24 hours.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason:

Administering iodine one hour before PTU is recommended because iodine can help reduce the thyroid hormone levels more effectively when given before PTU. This sequence ensures that the iodine is absorbed and utilized by the thyroid gland before PTU inhibits the synthesis of new thyroid hormones.

Choice B reason:

Scheduling both medications at bedtime is not appropriate. PTU and iodine solutions should be administered at specific times to maximize their effectiveness. PTU is typically given in divided doses throughout the day, while iodine solutions are often given before meals.

Choice C reason:

Administering both drugs together with a meal is incorrect. PTU should be taken on an empty stomach to ensure proper absorption, and iodine solutions are usually given before meals.

Choice D reason:

Giving a parenteral dose once every 24 hours is not applicable for these medications. PTU is administered orally in divided doses, and iodine solutions are also given orally.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is a critical action when a patient is in cardiac arrest or not breathing. However, in this scenario, the client is experiencing severe respiratory depression due to opioid overdose, and the first line of treatment is to administer naloxone. If the client does not respond to naloxone, then CPR may be necessary, but the immediate step is to address the opioid toxicity.

Choice B Reason:

Preparing to assist with chest tube insertion is not relevant in this context. Chest tubes are typically used to treat conditions like pneumothorax or pleural effusion. The client’s symptoms are due to opioid-induced respiratory depression, which requires naloxone administration rather than chest tube insertion.

Choice C Reason:

Administering a second dose of naloxone is the appropriate action. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression. Given the client’s critically low respiratory rate and oxygen saturation, a second dose of naloxone is necessary to counteract the opioid effects and restore normal breathing.

Choice D Reason:

Determining the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is useful for assessing the level of consciousness, but it does not directly address the immediate need to reverse the opioid-induced respiratory depression. The priority is to administer naloxone to improve the client’s respiratory status. Once the client is stabilized, further assessments, including the GCS score, can be conducted.

A. Osteoarthritis. B. Migraine headaches. C. Chronic alcoholism. D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Osteoarthritis is a common condition treated with NSAIDs like diclofenac. While it is important to monitor for potential side effects, osteoarthritis itself does not pose a significant concern in the context of diclofenac use. The medication is often prescribed to manage the pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis.

Choice B Reason:

Migraine headaches are also treated with NSAIDs, including diclofenac. While it is essential to monitor for side effects, migraines do not present a significant concern regarding the use of diclofenac. The medication can help alleviate the pain associated with migraines.

Choice C Reason:

Chronic alcoholism is of greatest concern when prescribing diclofenac. Alcohol can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and liver damage, both of which are potential side effects of NSAIDs. Combining alcohol with diclofenac can exacerbate these risks, making it crucial for the nurse to monitor the client closely and provide appropriate guidance.

Choice D Reason:

Type 2 diabetes mellitus requires careful management, but it is not the primary concern when prescribing diclofenac. While it is important to monitor for potential interactions and side effects, diabetes itself does not significantly increase the risks associated with diclofenac use compared to chronic alcoholism.

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The healthcare provider prescribes propylthiouracil (PTU) and Lugol’s solution, a strong iodine solution, for a client with hyperthyroidism. How should the nurse schedule the administration of these medications?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse administers naloxone to a client with opioid-induced respiratory depression. One hour later, nursing assessment reveals that the client has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unable to be aroused. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client has a new prescription for diclofenac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Which information in the client’s history is of greatest concern to the nurse in monitoring the client’s response to this medication?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Edited TextA client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) receives a new prescription for lorazepam. Which statement provided by the client requires additional instruction by the nurse?

The healthcare provider prescribes propylthiouracil (PTU) and Lugol’s solution, a strong iodine solution, for a client with hyperthyroidism. How should the nurse schedule the administration of these medications?

Patient Data Exhibits The healthcare provider (HCP) has given the client a prescription for captopril. Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statements by selecting from the lists of options provided. Captopril is a(n) dropdown that works by dropdown.