A nurse cares for a patient who is prescribed lactulose (Heptalac). The patient states, "I do not want to take this medication because it causes diarrhea." How would the nurse respond?
Diarrhea is expected; that's how your body gets rid of ammonia.
You may take Kaopectate liquid daily for loose stools.
Do not take any more of the medication until your stools firm up.
We will need to send a stool specimen to the laboratory.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Explaining that diarrhea is expected and that it is how the body gets rid of ammonia is accurate. Lactulose is often prescribed for patients with hepatic encephalopathy, and its purpose is to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting bowel movements. Diarrhea is a common and anticipated side effect, as it helps eliminate ammonia from the body.
Choice B reason: Recommending Kaopectate for loose stools is not appropriate in this context. Kaopectate is an anti-diarrheal medication, and using it would counteract the effect of lactulose, which aims to promote bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels.
Choice C reason: Instructing the patient to stop taking the medication until stools firm up is incorrect. Lactulose should be continued as prescribed to maintain its therapeutic effect of reducing blood ammonia levels. Stopping the medication would negate its benefits and potentially worsen the patient's condition.
Choice D reason: Suggesting to send a stool specimen to the laboratory is unnecessary in this scenario. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose, and there is no indication that a stool specimen needs to be analyzed unless there are signs of infection or other complications.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Respiratory compromise is the greatest risk for a client with a C4 spinal cord injury. The C4 spinal level is critical for the function of the diaphragm, which is the main muscle responsible for breathing. Injury at this level can impair diaphragmatic function, leading to difficulty in breathing or even respiratory failure. Immediate and continuous monitoring of respiratory status is essential for these patients to ensure adequate ventilation and oxygenation.
Choice B reason: Stress ulcers can develop in patients with spinal cord injuries due to the stress response and immobility. However, they are not the highest immediate risk compared to respiratory compromise, which can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed.
Choice C reason: Paralytic ileus, a condition where the intestines stop moving, can occur in spinal cord injury patients due to disruption of the nervous system control of the gut. While it is a significant concern, it is not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory compromise.
Choice D reason: Spinal shock is a condition that can occur after a spinal cord injury, leading to temporary loss of reflexes below the level of the injury. While it is an important condition to recognize and manage, the most urgent risk for a patient with a C4 injury is respiratory compromise due to the potential impact on breathing.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A heart rate of 56/min and a blood pressure of 110/70, while slightly lower than normal, may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. Bradycardia (a slow heart rate) and this blood pressure reading can be within acceptable limits for some individuals, especially if they are asymptomatic.
Choice B reason: Mitral valve regurgitation with a thready peripheral pulse indicates a decrease in cardiac output, which can be concerning. However, it may not require immediate intervention unless the client shows signs of severe decompensation or other critical symptoms. Continuous monitoring and evaluation are essential, but immediate action might not be necessary.
Choice C reason: Chest pain with inspiration in a client with pericarditis can be a symptom of the condition itself, which involves inflammation of the pericardium. While pain management and monitoring are important, this symptom alone may not necessitate immediate intervention unless it is severe or accompanied by other alarming signs.
Choice D reason: The development of slurred speech in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is a critical symptom that warrants immediate intervention. Slurred speech can be a sign of a stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA), both of which require urgent medical attention. Immediate action is needed to evaluate and manage the client's condition to prevent further complications.
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