A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) via mechanical ventilation. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of PEEP?
Hypoxemia
Tension pneumothorax.
Malignant hypertension
Atelectasis
The Correct Answer is B
A. Hypoxemia is a condition of low oxygen levels in the blood. PEEP can actually improve oxygenation by preventing alveolar collapse and increasing functional residual capacity.
B. Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition of air accumulation in the pleural space that causes increased intrathoracic pressure and compresses the lungs, heart, and great vessels. PEEP can increase the risk of tension pneumothorax by creating excessive positive pressure in the airways and alveoli.
C. Malignant hypertension is a severe form of high blood pressure that can cause organ damage and stroke. PEEP can cause a transient increase in blood pressure due to increased intrathoracic pressure, but it does not cause malignant hypertension.
D. Atelectasis is a condition of partial or complete lung collapse due to alveolar collapse or obstruction. PEEP can prevent or treat atelectasis by maintaining positive pressure in the airways and alveoli.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
- A: Correct. Firmly massaging the uterine fundus helps to contract the uterus and reduce bleeding.
- B: Correct. Providing emotional support helps to calm the client and reduce anxiety, which can worsen bleeding.
- C: Correct. Administering oxygen helps to improve tissue perfusion and oxygenation, which can be compromised by blood loss. Weighing the perineal pads helps to quantify the amount of blood loss and monitor for hemorrhage.
- D: Correct. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter helps to empty the bladder and allow the uterus to descend and contract more effectively. Administering methylergonovine helps to stimulate uterine contractions and control bleeding.
- E: Incorrect. Administering terbutaline is contraindicated in this situation, as it relaxes the uterine smooth muscle and increases bleeding.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
- A. Radial vein of the inner arm. This is correct because this site is easily accessible, has good blood flow, and has less risk of complications such as infection, thrombosis, or infiltration.
- B. Great saphenous vein of the leg. This is incorrect because this site is not recommended for older adults due to poor circulation, increased risk of thrombophlebitis, and difficulty in monitoring.
- C. Dorsal plexus vein of the foot. This is incorrect because this site is prone to edema, infection, and injury, and can interfere with mobility and comfort.
- D. Basilic vein of the hand. This is incorrect because this site is more painful, has smaller veins, and can cause nerve damage or occlusion if not inserted carefully.
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