nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct Interpretation of this clinical finding?

The posterior fontanel is palpable.

The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.

The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.

The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) The posterior fontanel is palpable:
This statement is not directly related to station. The fontanelles are soft spots on the fetal skull used to assess fetal head position, but they are not specifically related to station.

B) The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines:
In obstetrics, station refers to the relationship between the presenting part of the fetus and the maternal ischial spines. When the presenting part is at 0 station, it means that the lowest part of the fetus (usually the head) is at the level of the maternal ischial spines. This is a significant landmark indicating the progress of labor. As labor progresses, the fetus descends further into the pelvis, with stations progressing from -3 to +3.

C) The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position:
The station does not provide information about the fetal head position. Left occiput posterior position refers to the position of the fetal head in relation to the maternal pelvis, which is determined separately through pelvic examinations.

D) The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet:
While 0 station indicates engagement of the fetal head in the pelvis, it does not necessarily mean that the largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet. Labor continues until the entire fetus is delivered through the birth canal, which occurs as labor progresses through the different stages.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Hypotension:
Hypotension is a common complication of epidural anesthesia. The epidural block can cause vasodilation and decreased peripheral resistance, leading to a drop in blood pressure. This is the most significant and frequently observed complication following epidural anesthesia in labor.

B) Respiratory depression:
Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with opioid administration rather than epidural anesthesia. While it can occur if opioids are included in the epidural mixture, it is not the most common complication of the epidural block itself.

C) Vomiting:
Vomiting is not a typical complication of epidural anesthesia. It may occur due to other factors in labor, such as pain, anxiety, or medications given for labor, but it is not directly related to the epidural block.

D) Tachycardia:
Tachycardia is not a typical complication of epidural anesthesia. In fact, hypotension from the epidural block may lead to a compensatory increase in heart rate, but this is a secondary effect and not a direct complication of the epidural block.

A. Indomethacin B. Oxytocin C. Magnesium sulfate D. Methylergonovine E. Prostaglandin E2

Correct Answer is ["A","C"]

Explanation

A. Indomethacin: Indomethacin, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), is commonly used to inhibit uterine contractions and delay preterm labor by suppressing prostaglandin synthesis.

C. Magnesium sulfate: Magnesium sulfate is frequently employed to prevent and treat preterm labor due to its tocolytic properties, which help inhibit uterine contractions and delay the onset of labor.

B. Oxytocin: Oxytocin is typically not used for the treatment of preterm labor. It is primarily administered to induce or augment labor in full-term or near-term pregnant individuals.

D. Methylergonovine: Methylergonovine is not commonly used to treat preterm labor. It is primarily indicated for preventing or controlling postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions.

E. Prostaglandin E2: Prostaglandin E2 is not typically utilized for the management of preterm labor. It is primarily employed for cervical ripening and induction of labor in full-term or near-term pregnant individuals.

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nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct Interpretation of this clinical finding?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a client in labor who has had epidural anesthesia for pain relief. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a complication from the epidural block?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is admitting a client who has a diagnosis of preterm labor. The nurse anticipates a prescription by the provider for which of the following medications? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","C"]

Explanation

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A nurse is caring for a client who is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. When monitoring the uterine contractions, which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and assists the provider who performs an amniotomy. Which of the following is the priority action by the nurse following the procedure?

A nurse is caring for a client who is a primigravida, at term, and having contractions but is stating that she is "not really sure if she is in labor or not." Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a sign of true labor?

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