nurse is providing teaching to the parents of a newborn about newborn genetic screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
"This test will be repeated when your baby is 2 months old."
"Your baby will be given 2 ounces of water to drink prior to the test."
"This test should be performed after your baby is 24 hours old."
"A nurse will draw blood from your baby's inner elbow."
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason:
"This test will be repeated when your baby is 2 months old. “This is a false statement. Newborn genetic screening is usually performed shortly after birth. The test is not typically repeated when the baby is 2 months old, as it is meant to detect conditions early on, allowing for prompt intervention and management if necessary.
Choice B reason:
"Your baby will be given 2 ounces of water to drink prior to the test."This is a false statement. The baby does not need to drink water before the newborn genetic screening test. The test is usually performed by collecting a small blood sample from the baby's heel, and there is no need for the baby to drink water beforehand.
Choice C reason:
"This test should be performed after your baby is 24 hours old. “This is the appropriate statement. The nurse should include the statement that newborn genetic screening should be performed after the baby is 24 hours old. Newborn genetic screening, also known as newborn screening or heel prick test, is a standard test performed on newborns to detect certain genetic, metabolic, and congenital disorders early on. The test is typically done by pricking the baby's heel to collect a small sample of blood, which is then analysed in a laboratory.
Choice D reason:
"A nurse will draw blood from your baby's inner elbow. “This is a false statement. The correct location for collecting the blood sample for newborn genetic screening is the baby's heel. The nurse will prick the baby's heel to obtain a few drops of blood, which will then be collected on a special filter paper for laboratory analysis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Answer and explanation.
The correct answer is choice C, hypertension. Hypertension is a contraindication to living kidney donation because it can increase the risk of kidney disease and cardiovascular complications in the donor. Hypertension can also affect the quality and survival of the donated kidney in the recipient.
Therefore, a potential donor with uncontrolled or poorly controlled hypertension should not undergo nephrectomy.
Choice A, osteoarthritis, is not a contraindication to living kidney donation.
Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that does not affect the kidneys or the cardiovascular system.
It may cause pain and stiffness in the joints, but it can be managed with medications and physical therapy. A potential donor with osteoarthritis can donate a kidney if they have normal kidney function and no other medical problems.
Choice B, primary glaucoma, is not a contraindication to living kidney donation.
Primary glaucoma is a condition that causes increased pressure in the eye and can lead to vision loss if untreated.
It does not affect the kidneys or the cardiovascular system. A potential donor with primary glaucoma can donate a kidney if they have normal kidney function and no other medical problems.
Choice D, amputation, is not a contraindication to living kidney donation.
Amputation is the surgical removal of a limb or part of a limb due to injury, infection, or disease.
It does not affect the kidneys or the cardiovascular system. A potential donor with amputation can donate a kidney if they have normal kidney function and no other medical problems.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are less than 120/80 mmHg for systolic and diastolic pressure, respectively.
Normal ranges for kidney function are eGFR above 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 and albuminuria below 30 mg/g.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A option
Fibrinogen level: Fibrinogen is a protein involved in the blood clotting process, but in this case, it is not appropriate because is not the primary laboratory test used to monitor warfarin therapy. Monitoring fibrinogen levels is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders or certain medical conditions.
Choice B option
PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time): PTT is another laboratory test used to evaluate blood clotting function, particularly the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade. PTT is not routinely used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to monitor other anticoagulant medications like heparin.
Choice C option
The nurse should plan to report the client's INR (International Normalized Ratio) to obtain a prescription for the client's daily warfarin. INR is a critical laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy.
Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication commonly prescribed to prevent and treat blood clots. It works by interfering with the body's ability to use vitamin K to form blood clots. Monitoring the INR is essential because it indicates how long it takes for the blood to clot, and it helps determine if the client's warfarin dosage needs adjustment to achieve the desired level of anticoagulation.
Choice D option
Platelet count: Platelet count is essential to assess the number of platelets in the blood, which are crucial for normal clotting. However, platelet count monitoring is not the primary focus when prescribing warfarin. It is typically used to evaluate thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) or other conditions affecting platelet function.
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