Question 28
A nurse is discussing laboratory values associated with the renal system with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the values?
Potassium levels are increased in clients who have polyuria
Creatinine levels are decreased in clients who have acute kidney injury
Specific gravity is decreased in clients who have hypovolemia
BUN is increased in clients who have dehydration
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Polyuria, excessive urine output, typically leads to potassium loss, causing hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia. In conditions like diabetes insipidus, increased urination reduces serum potassium as the kidneys excrete more fluid and electrolytes. Elevated potassium is more associated with reduced renal excretion, as in kidney failure, not polyuria.
Choice B reason: Creatinine levels increase in acute kidney injury due to reduced glomerular filtration, impairing the kidneys’ ability to clear creatinine, a muscle metabolism byproduct. Decreased creatinine levels are rare and may reflect low muscle mass, not kidney injury, making this statement incorrect as it contradicts the pathophysiology of renal impairment.
Choice C reason: Specific gravity is increased in hypovolemia, as the kidneys conserve water, producing concentrated urine (high specific gravity, >1.020). Decreased specific gravity occurs in conditions like diabetes insipidus, where dilute urine is produced. This statement is incorrect, as hypovolemia leads to higher, not lower, urine specific gravity.
Choice D reason: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) increases in dehydration due to reduced renal perfusion, causing the kidneys to reabsorb urea to conserve water. This elevates serum BUN levels, often with a normal creatinine, reflecting prerenal azotemia. This statement correctly aligns with the pathophysiology of dehydration’s effect on renal laboratory values.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Chest tube discomfort can significantly limit deep breathing and ambulation, increasing atelectasis risk. Administering pain medication reduces discomfort, enabling the patient to perform deep breathing exercises and ambulate, which promote lung expansion and prevent complications like pneumonia. Pain control directly enhances compliance with these critical activities.
Choice B reason: Educating the patient about lung expansion’s importance may improve understanding but does not address the physical barrier of pain. Pain limits the ability to perform deep breathing and ambulation, making education alone insufficient. Pain management is needed first to enable compliance with these respiratory and mobility interventions.
Choice C reason: Arranging rest periods supports patient recovery but does not directly address pain, the primary barrier to deep breathing and ambulation. While rest is important, it does not facilitate the active participation required for lung expansion or mobility, which are critical to prevent respiratory complications in chest tube patients.
Choice D reason: Teaching incentive spirometer use promotes lung expansion but is ineffective if pain prevents deep breathing. The chest tube’s discomfort limits the patient’s ability to use the device effectively. Pain management must precede teaching to ensure the patient can perform the necessary respiratory exercises without discomfort hindering compliance.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Stage 4 chronic kidney disease is characterized by a GFR of 15-29 mL/min/1.73 m², indicating severe kidney dysfunction. The kidneys have limited ability to filter waste, leading to accumulation of toxins, fluid overload, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyperkalemia or metabolic acidosis. A GFR of 43 mL/min/1.73 m² is higher, reflecting moderate rather than severe impairment, making Stage 4 incorrect.
Choice B reason: Stage 3 chronic kidney disease is defined by a GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m², subdivided into Stage 3A (45-59) and Stage 3B (30-44). A GFR of 43 falls within Stage 3B, indicating moderate kidney damage. This stage involves reduced filtration capacity, potentially causing symptoms like edema, hypertension, or early uremia due to impaired waste excretion and fluid balance regulation.
Choice C reason: Stage 2 chronic kidney disease corresponds to a GFR of 60-89 mL/min/1.73 m², indicating mild kidney dysfunction. Patients may be asymptomatic, but structural kidney damage may be present, detectable via proteinuria or imaging. A GFR of 43 is lower, indicating more significant impairment with increased risk of complications like anemia or bone disease, ruling out Stage 2.
Choice D reason: Stage 1 chronic kidney disease is defined by a GFR ≥90 mL/min/1.73 m² with evidence of kidney damage, such as proteinuria or abnormal imaging. Kidney function is nearly normal, and symptoms are typically absent. A GFR of 43 indicates moderate to severe kidney damage, far below the normal range, making Stage 1 an incorrect classification for this client.
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