The barbiturate phenobarbital is prescribed for a patient with epilepsy. While assessing the patient's current medications, the nurse recognizes that interactions may occur with which drugs? (Select all that apply.)
Oral contraceptives
Antihistamines
Warfarin
Opioids
Diuretics
Correct Answer : A,D,E
A. Oral contraceptives: Phenobarbital can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, increasing the risk of contraceptive failure and unintended pregnancy.
B. Antihistamines: While phenobarbital can induce hepatic enzymes, leading to increased
metabolism of some antihistamines, this interaction is less clinically significant compared to the interactions with oral contraceptives, opioids, and diuretics.
C. Warfarin: Phenobarbital can induce the metabolism of warfarin, potentially reducing its anticoagulant effects and necessitating closer monitoring of international normalized ratio (INR) levels.
D. Opioids: Phenobarbital can increase the metabolism of opioids, leading to reduced analgesic effects and potentially causing inadequate pain control.
E. Diuretics: Phenobarbital can accelerate the metabolism of diuretics, potentially reducing their efficacy and necessitating adjustments in dosage or monitoring of electrolyte levels.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The drug level is at a toxic level, and the dosage needs to be reduced. Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic range, and levels above 20 mcg/mL are considered to be in the toxic range.
Symptoms of phenytoin toxicity can include nystagmus, ataxia, slurred speech, and confusion. Therefore, if a patient's phenytoin level is 23 mcg/mL, the nurse should be concerned about potential toxicity and consult with the healthcare provider to adjust the dosage.
B. The patient's seizures should be under control if she is also taking a second antiepileptic drug.
While combination therapy with multiple antiepileptic drugs can help control seizures, a phenytoin level of 23 mcg/mL is still concerning for toxicity and requires intervention.
C. The patient is at risk for seizures because the drug level is not at a therapeutic level. A phenytoin level of 23 mcg/mL is actually above the therapeutic range and is more indicative of toxicity rather than subtherapeutic levels.
D. The patient's seizures should be under control because this is a therapeutic drug level. A phenytoin level of 23 mcg/mL is not within the therapeutic range but rather in the toxic range, so the patient may experience symptoms of toxicity rather than having adequate seizure control.

Correct Answer is ["A","C"]
Explanation
A. Increased heart rate: Sympathetic nervous system stimulation typically leads to increased heart rate as part of the "fight or flight" response.
B. Decrease in urinary bladder muscle tone: Sympathetic stimulation would typically cause relaxation of the urinary bladder, leading to increased muscle tone.
C. Increased blood pressure: Sympathetic nervous system activation results in vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output, leading to elevated blood pressure.
D. Decreased salivation: Sympathetic stimulation can lead to decreased salivation as part of the "fight or flight" response, but it's not a consistent finding.
E. Decreased bowel sounds: Sympathetic activation can inhibit gastrointestinal motility, leading to decreased bowel sounds, but it's not a universal finding in sympathetic stimulation.
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