The client with chronic renal failure has a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 40 mL/min/1.73 m², as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. What is the nurse's interpretation of this finding?
Increased glomerular filtration rate, client at risk for fluid overload
Reduced glomerular filtration rate, client at risk for fluid overload
Reduced glomerular filtration rate, client at risk for dehydration
Increased glomerular filtration rate, client at risk for dehydration
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: A GFR of 40 mL/min/1.73 m² is below normal (≥90), indicating reduced, not increased, kidney function. Chronic renal failure impairs fluid excretion, leading to fluid overload, not dehydration. Increased GFR would suggest hyperfiltration, seen in early diabetes, not chronic renal failure, making this interpretation incorrect.
Choice B reason: A GFR of 40 mL/min/1.73 m² indicates reduced kidney function (Stage 3B chronic kidney disease). The kidneys’ impaired ability to excrete fluid increases the risk of fluid overload, causing edema, hypertension, or pulmonary edema. This aligns with the pathophysiology of chronic renal failure, making this the correct interpretation.
Choice C reason: A GFR of 40 mL/min/1.73 m² reflects reduced kidney function, not dehydration risk. Chronic renal failure leads to fluid retention due to decreased filtration, causing hypervolemia, not hypovolemia. Dehydration is associated with prerenal causes, not established chronic kidney disease, making this interpretation inconsistent with the clinical scenario.
Choice D reason: A GFR of 40 mL/min/1.73 m² is reduced, not increased, in chronic renal failure. Reduced GFR leads to fluid retention, not dehydration, as the kidneys cannot excrete excess fluid. Increased GFR might cause dehydration in rare hyperfiltration states, but this does not apply to chronic renal failure’s pathophysiology.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Helping a tracheostomy client communicate is important for psychological well-being and care coordination, but it is not the priority. The ABCDE approach emphasizes airway patency first, as obstruction can lead to rapid respiratory failure. Communication aids, like speaking valves, are secondary to ensuring the tracheostomy tube remains clear and functional.
Choice B reason: Preventing infection is critical in tracheostomy care due to the open airway’s susceptibility to pathogens like Pseudomonas. However, in the ABCDE approach, airway patency is the top priority, as obstruction causes immediate respiratory compromise. Infection control, while essential, is addressed after ensuring the airway is open and functional.
Choice C reason: Keeping the airway patent is the first priority for a tracheostomy client. The tracheostomy tube can become obstructed by mucus or dislodgement, leading to rapid hypoxemia and respiratory arrest. Regular suctioning and monitoring ensure airflow, aligning with the ABCDE approach’s focus on airway as the most critical aspect of care.
Choice D reason: Encouraging activities of daily living promotes independence and recovery but is not the priority in tracheostomy care. The ABCDE approach prioritizes airway patency, as obstruction is life-threatening. Functional independence is addressed later, after ensuring airway, breathing, and circulation are stable, making this a lower-priority intervention.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Full-thickness burns disrupt the skin barrier, increasing infection risk. Wearing gowns, caps, masks, and gloves creates a sterile barrier, preventing cross-contamination from healthcare workers or the environment. This adheres to strict infection control protocols, minimizing the introduction of pathogens like Staphylococcus or Pseudomonas to vulnerable burn wounds.
Choice B reason: Increasing room temperature to 70°F (20°C) during dressing changes aims to prevent patient hypothermia, as burns impair thermoregulation. However, this does not directly address cross-contamination. Temperature control is supportive but does not reduce microbial transmission, making it less effective than personal protective equipment for infection prevention.
Choice C reason: Using sterile gloves when removing old dressings reduces contamination during that specific task. However, it is less comprehensive than full personal protective equipment (gowns, caps, masks, gloves), which protects against contamination throughout care. Sterile gloves alone do not cover potential pathogen spread from other sources, like respiratory droplets or clothing.
Choice D reason: IV antibiotics treat or prevent systemic infections but do not directly prevent cross-contamination of exposed wounds. Prophylactic antibiotics may reduce bacterial colonization but are not the primary method for preventing environmental or contact-based contamination, which is better addressed by physical barriers like gowns and gloves.
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