The client’s blood sugar this morning is 50 mg/dL. The client states they are cold, sweating, and clammy. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
The blood sugar is normal, the client needs to drink water
Give the client fruit juice with additional sugar
Give 5 units of insulin
Call the healthcare provider immediately
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: A blood sugar of 50 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, not normal glucose levels (70-110 mg/dL). Symptoms like sweating and clamminess confirm this. Drinking water does not address hypoglycemia, as it lacks glucose to raise blood sugar, making this intervention inappropriate and potentially harmful.
Choice B reason: Hypoglycemia (50 mg/dL) with symptoms like sweating requires rapid glucose correction. Fruit juice with added sugar provides fast-acting carbohydrates (15-20g), raising blood sugar within minutes by stimulating glycogenolysis and glucose absorption. This is the most appropriate intervention to reverse hypoglycemia safely and effectively.
Choice C reason: Administering insulin during hypoglycemia (50 mg/dL) would further lower blood sugar, worsening symptoms and risking seizures or coma. Insulin drives glucose into cells, exacerbating the glucose deficit. This intervention is contraindicated and dangerous in the context of low blood sugar and neuroglycopenic symptoms.
Choice D reason: While consulting a healthcare provider may be needed for recurrent hypoglycemia, the immediate priority is correcting low blood sugar (50 mg/dL) with fast-acting carbohydrates. Delaying treatment by calling first risks prolonged hypoglycemia, potentially causing neurological damage, making this less appropriate than direct intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Levothyroxine (T4) replacement requires TSH monitoring to ensure adequate dosing, as TSH reflects thyroid function. T3 replacement also requires monitoring, but T3 is less commonly used due to its short half-life. This statement is inaccurate, as TSH monitoring is essential for T4 therapy.
Choice B reason: The body converts levothyroxine (T4) to triiodothyronine (T3) via deiodinase enzymes in peripheral tissues, restoring both hormone levels. T3 replacement is unnecessary, as T4 provides a stable precursor for T3 production, making this statement accurate for explaining hypothyroidism treatment rationale.
Choice C reason: T3 and T4 can be administered together in specific cases (e.g., combination therapy) without becoming inactive. However, T4 alone is standard due to its longer half-life and conversion to T3. This statement is inaccurate, as it falsely claims biochemical incompatibility between the hormones.
Choice D reason: T3 is the active thyroid hormone, not an inactive precursor to T4. T4 is converted to T3, which binds receptors to regulate metabolism. This statement is inaccurate, as it reverses the roles of T3 and T4 in thyroid hormone physiology and therapy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Chronic kidney disease (CKD) does not primarily cause anemia by leaking red blood cells (RBCs) into urine. While hematuria may occur in some renal conditions, anemia in CKD results mainly from reduced erythropoietin production, not RBC loss. This statement is inaccurate, as it misrepresents the primary mechanism of anemia in CKD.
Choice B reason: Inflammation in CKD may contribute to anemia by suppressing erythropoiesis through cytokine release, but it does not directly attack RBCs. The primary cause is erythropoietin deficiency due to impaired renal function. This statement is inaccurate, as it overstates inflammation’s role and ignores the key hormonal mechanism in CKD-related anemia.
Choice C reason: High vascular pressure in CKD can damage kidneys but does not directly cause RBCs to burst (hemolysis). Anemia in CKD stems from reduced erythropoietin, not mechanical RBC destruction. This statement is inaccurate, as it incorrectly links hypertension’s renal effects to direct RBC damage, misrepresenting the anemia’s cause.
Choice D reason: CKD causes anemia due to reduced erythropoietin synthesis by damaged kidneys. Erythropoietin stimulates RBC production in bone marrow. In CKD, impaired renal function decreases erythropoietin, leading to anemia. This statement is accurate, as it correctly identifies the hormonal deficiency as the primary cause of low RBC counts in CKD.
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