A client with chronic kidney disease has a low red blood cell count. What is the best response by the nurse?

Your kidneys are allowing a lot of red blood cells to leak out in your urine and causing you to become anemic

The inflammatory process attacking your kidneys is also attacking your red blood cells

The high pressure in your vessels that caused damage to your kidneys is also causing your red blood cells to burst

Your kidneys are not able to synthesize the hormone responsible for stimulating red blood cell production

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Chronic kidney disease (CKD) does not primarily cause anemia by leaking red blood cells (RBCs) into urine. While hematuria may occur in some renal conditions, anemia in CKD results mainly from reduced erythropoietin production, not RBC loss. This statement is inaccurate, as it misrepresents the primary mechanism of anemia in CKD.

Choice B reason: Inflammation in CKD may contribute to anemia by suppressing erythropoiesis through cytokine release, but it does not directly attack RBCs. The primary cause is erythropoietin deficiency due to impaired renal function. This statement is inaccurate, as it overstates inflammation’s role and ignores the key hormonal mechanism in CKD-related anemia.

Choice C reason: High vascular pressure in CKD can damage kidneys but does not directly cause RBCs to burst (hemolysis). Anemia in CKD stems from reduced erythropoietin, not mechanical RBC destruction. This statement is inaccurate, as it incorrectly links hypertension’s renal effects to direct RBC damage, misrepresenting the anemia’s cause.

Choice D reason: CKD causes anemia due to reduced erythropoietin synthesis by damaged kidneys. Erythropoietin stimulates RBC production in bone marrow. In CKD, impaired renal function decreases erythropoietin, leading to anemia. This statement is accurate, as it correctly identifies the hormonal deficiency as the primary cause of low RBC counts in CKD.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Hard, formed stool is typical of descending or sigmoid colostomies, where the colon reabsorbs water. A transverse colostomy, located higher in the colon, has less water absorption, producing liquid stool. This statement is inaccurate, as transverse colostomy stool is not hard or formed.

Choice B reason: A transverse colostomy, located in the mid-colon, produces mostly liquid feces with mucus due to limited water reabsorption before the stoma. The proximal colon’s contents are less formed, and mucus from inflammation (common in IBD) is present, making this statement accurate for stool consistency.

Choice C reason: Soft, semi-formed stool is more typical of descending colostomies, where water absorption occurs longer. Transverse colostomies, higher in the colon, produce more liquid output due to shorter transit time. This statement is inaccurate, as it does not reflect transverse colostomy stool consistency.

Choice D reason: Dry, pellet-like stool is characteristic of constipation or distal colon output, not a transverse colostomy. The transverse colon’s contents are liquid due to minimal water reabsorption, especially in IBD with inflammation. This statement is inaccurate, as it misrepresents the expected stool consistency.

A. The blood sugar is normal, the client needs to drink water B. Give the client fruit juice with additional sugar C. Give 5 units of insulin D. Call the healthcare provider immediately

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: A blood sugar of 50 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, not normal glucose levels (70-110 mg/dL). Symptoms like sweating and clamminess confirm this. Drinking water does not address hypoglycemia, as it lacks glucose to raise blood sugar, making this intervention inappropriate and potentially harmful.

Choice B reason: Hypoglycemia (50 mg/dL) with symptoms like sweating requires rapid glucose correction. Fruit juice with added sugar provides fast-acting carbohydrates (15-20g), raising blood sugar within minutes by stimulating glycogenolysis and glucose absorption. This is the most appropriate intervention to reverse hypoglycemia safely and effectively.

Choice C reason: Administering insulin during hypoglycemia (50 mg/dL) would further lower blood sugar, worsening symptoms and risking seizures or coma. Insulin drives glucose into cells, exacerbating the glucose deficit. This intervention is contraindicated and dangerous in the context of low blood sugar and neuroglycopenic symptoms.

Choice D reason: While consulting a healthcare provider may be needed for recurrent hypoglycemia, the immediate priority is correcting low blood sugar (50 mg/dL) with fast-acting carbohydrates. Delaying treatment by calling first risks prolonged hypoglycemia, potentially causing neurological damage, making this less appropriate than direct intervention.

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A client with chronic kidney disease has a low red blood cell count. What is the best response by the nurse?

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