The critical care nurse recognizes that which of the following conditions may indicate the need for a client to have a tracheostomy?
A client with a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
A client who requires permanent ventilation
A client who exhibits symptoms of dyspnea
A client with respiratory acidosis
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min is slightly below normal (12-20 breaths/min) but may not necessitate a tracheostomy unless accompanied by other factors like airway obstruction or inability to protect the airway. Tracheostomy is typically reserved for prolonged ventilation needs, not isolated low respiratory rates.
Choice B reason: A client requiring permanent ventilation, such as in chronic neuromuscular diseases or severe lung injury, needs a tracheostomy to provide a stable, long-term airway. Unlike endotracheal tubes, tracheostomies reduce complications like vocal cord damage and improve patient comfort, making them the standard for prolonged mechanical ventilation.
Choice C reason: Dyspnea, or shortness of breath, indicates respiratory distress but does not inherently require a tracheostomy. It may be managed with oxygen or non-invasive ventilation. Tracheostomy is indicated for airway obstruction or prolonged ventilation, not transient symptoms like dyspnea, which can have multiple causes.
Choice D reason: Respiratory acidosis, due to elevated CO2 from hypoventilation, may require ventilatory support but not necessarily a tracheostomy. Non-invasive ventilation or temporary intubation may suffice. Tracheostomy is reserved for long-term airway management, making it less relevant for acute acidosis without evidence of prolonged ventilation needs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Stage 4 chronic kidney disease is characterized by a GFR of 15-29 mL/min/1.73 m², indicating severe kidney dysfunction. The kidneys have limited ability to filter waste, leading to accumulation of toxins, fluid overload, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyperkalemia or metabolic acidosis. A GFR of 43 mL/min/1.73 m² is higher, reflecting moderate rather than severe impairment, making Stage 4 incorrect.
Choice B reason: Stage 3 chronic kidney disease is defined by a GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m², subdivided into Stage 3A (45-59) and Stage 3B (30-44). A GFR of 43 falls within Stage 3B, indicating moderate kidney damage. This stage involves reduced filtration capacity, potentially causing symptoms like edema, hypertension, or early uremia due to impaired waste excretion and fluid balance regulation.
Choice C reason: Stage 2 chronic kidney disease corresponds to a GFR of 60-89 mL/min/1.73 m², indicating mild kidney dysfunction. Patients may be asymptomatic, but structural kidney damage may be present, detectable via proteinuria or imaging. A GFR of 43 is lower, indicating more significant impairment with increased risk of complications like anemia or bone disease, ruling out Stage 2.
Choice D reason: Stage 1 chronic kidney disease is defined by a GFR ≥90 mL/min/1.73 m² with evidence of kidney damage, such as proteinuria or abnormal imaging. Kidney function is nearly normal, and symptoms are typically absent. A GFR of 43 indicates moderate to severe kidney damage, far below the normal range, making Stage 1 an incorrect classification for this client.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Observing mist in the endotracheal tube suggests air movement but is not a reliable indicator of correct placement. Mist can occur with esophageal intubation or partial airway placement. Definitive confirmation requires imaging, as mist does not distinguish between tracheal and esophageal placement, risking ventilation errors.
Choice B reason: A chest x-ray is the gold standard for confirming endotracheal tube placement. It visualizes the tube’s position relative to the carina, ensuring it is in the trachea and not the esophagus or a main bronchus. This is critical in pulmonary edema to ensure effective ventilation and oxygenation.
Choice C reason: Attaching a pulse oximeter monitors oxygen saturation but does not confirm endotracheal tube placement. Improved saturation may occur with incorrect placement (e.g., esophageal), and low saturation does not specify tube position. Imaging is required for definitive confirmation, making pulse oximetry a supportive, not primary, measure.
Choice D reason: Checking the pH of secretions is not a standard method for confirming endotracheal tube placement. Secretions’ pH varies and does not indicate whether the tube is in the trachea or esophagus. Chest x-ray provides anatomical confirmation, essential for ensuring proper ventilation in critical conditions like pulmonary edema.
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