The healthcare provider prescribes bismuth subsalicylate, metronidazole, tetracycline, and pantoprazole for a client with a Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection.
Prior to administering the
H. pylori treatment regimen, the nurse should review the electronic medical record for which medication?
Famotidine.
Loperamide.
Aspirin.
Ipratropium.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (H2RA) that decreases gastric acid secretion. It is often used to treat conditions such as ulcers, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and heartburn.
Bismuth subsalicylate, metronidazole, tetracycline, and pantoprazole are all medications used in the treatment of H. pylori infection. However, these medications can interact with famotidine, potentially leading to decreased efficacy or increased side effects.
Therefore, it is important for the nurse to review the client's electronic medical record for any current or recent use of famotidine before administering the H. pylori treatment regimen. This will help to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the treatment.
Choice B rationale:
Loperamide is an antidiarrheal medication. It is not typically used in the treatment of H. pylori infection and is not known to interact with the medications used in this regimen.
Choice C rationale:
Aspirin is a salicylate medication that is often used to treat pain, fever, and inflammation. It can also be used to prevent blood clots. However, aspirin can interact with bismuth subsalicylate, potentially leading to increased risk of bleeding.
Therefore, it is important for the nurse to assess the client's risk of bleeding before administering the H. pylori treatment regimen if they are also taking aspirin.
Choice D rationale:
Ipratropium is a bronchodilator medication that is used to treat asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is not typically used in the treatment of H. pylori infection and is not known to interact with the medications used in this regimen.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Leaving the dressing off would expose the wound to air and potential contamination, which could delay healing and increase the risk of infection.
While consulting with the healthcare provider is always an option, it's not necessary in this case as the nurse has the knowledge and skills to select an appropriate dressing.
Additionally, leaving the wound uncovered could cause pain and discomfort to the patient, as well as potentially disrupt the delicate granulation tissue that has already formed.
Choice C rationale:
Increasing the frequency of dressing changes could disrupt the healing process and irritate the wound bed.
It's generally recommended to change dressings only as often as necessary to keep the wound clean and moist. Excessive dressing changes can also be costly and time-consuming for both the patient and the healthcare provider. Choice D rationale:
Transparent dressings are not ideal for stage 3 pressure injuries with significant granulation tissue. These dressings are more suitable for wounds with minimal exudate and that are not actively healing. Transparent dressings can also adhere to the wound bed, causing pain and trauma upon removal.
Choice B rationale:
Hydrocolloidal gel dressings are a good choice for stage 3 pressure injuries with granulation tissue because they: Provide a moist wound environment, which promotes healing.
Absorb exudate, which helps to prevent maceration of the surrounding skin. Form a protective barrier over the wound, which helps to prevent infection.
Are comfortable for the patient and can be left in place for several days.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Pneumonia is the most likely diagnosis given the rapid development of pulmonary infiltrates within a 24-hour period. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. It typically presents with symptoms such as fever, cough, shortness of breath, and chest pain. The presence of pulmonary infiltrates on imaging studies, such as a chest X-ray, is a key diagnostic feature of pneumonia.
The distribution of the infiltrates, involving the lower lobes with a predominance on the right side, is also consistent with pneumonia. This is because the lower lobes are more susceptible to pneumonia due to their anatomy and gravity.
The absence of active processes on Day 1 makes other diagnoses less likely. For example, tuberculosis typically develops more slowly over weeks or months, and bronchitis usually does not cause pulmonary infiltrates.
Pulmonary embolism can cause pulmonary infiltrates, but it would typically be associated with other symptoms such as sudden onset of shortness of breath, chest pain, and tachycardia.
Choice B rationale:
Tuberculosis is a chronic infection that typically develops slowly over weeks or months. It is less likely to cause rapid development of pulmonary infiltrates as seen in this case.
Tuberculosis often involves the upper lobes of the lungs, and it may be associated with other symptoms such as fever, night sweats, and weight loss.
Choice C rationale:
Bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchi, the large airways that carry air to the lungs. It typically causes a cough, but it does not usually cause pulmonary infiltrates.
Bronchitis is often caused by a virus, and it usually resolves on its own within a few weeks.
Choice D rationale:
Pulmonary embolism is a blockage of a pulmonary artery, one of the blood vessels that carries blood to the lungs. It can cause pulmonary infiltrates, but it would typically be associated with other symptoms such as sudden onset of shortness of breath, chest pain, and tachycardia.
Pulmonary embolism is often caused by a blood clot that travels from a vein in the leg to the lungs.
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