The healthcare provider prescribes bismuth subsalicylate, metronidazole, tetracycline, and pantoprazole for a client with a Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection.
Prior to administering the
H. pylori treatment regimen, the nurse should review the electronic medical record for which medication?
Famotidine.
Loperamide.
Aspirin.
Ipratropium.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (H2RA) that decreases gastric acid secretion. It is often used to treat conditions such as ulcers, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and heartburn.
Bismuth subsalicylate, metronidazole, tetracycline, and pantoprazole are all medications used in the treatment of H. pylori infection. However, these medications can interact with famotidine, potentially leading to decreased efficacy or increased side effects.
Therefore, it is important for the nurse to review the client's electronic medical record for any current or recent use of famotidine before administering the H. pylori treatment regimen. This will help to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the treatment.
Choice B rationale:
Loperamide is an antidiarrheal medication. It is not typically used in the treatment of H. pylori infection and is not known to interact with the medications used in this regimen.
Choice C rationale:
Aspirin is a salicylate medication that is often used to treat pain, fever, and inflammation. It can also be used to prevent blood clots. However, aspirin can interact with bismuth subsalicylate, potentially leading to increased risk of bleeding.
Therefore, it is important for the nurse to assess the client's risk of bleeding before administering the H. pylori treatment regimen if they are also taking aspirin.
Choice D rationale:
Ipratropium is a bronchodilator medication that is used to treat asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is not typically used in the treatment of H. pylori infection and is not known to interact with the medications used in this regimen.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Chronic pain is a significant concern for this client, but it is not the immediate priority. Pain can be managed with medications and comfort measures, while aspiration can be life-threatening.
Tissue destruction by the tumor is likely contributing to the pain, but addressing the risk of aspiration takes precedence.
Uncontrolled pain can exacerbate anxiety and make it difficult to focus on other interventions, but ensuring airway safety is paramount.
Choice B rationale:
Anxiety and grieving are expected reactions to a diagnosis of esophageal cancer, and they should be addressed as part of the client's care plan. However, they are not the immediate priority in this case.
The progression of the disease is a significant stressor, but attending to the risk of aspiration is essential for the client's safety. Psychological distress can negatively impact coping and quality of life, but addressing physical needs takes precedence.
Choice D rationale:
Imbalanced nutrition is a concern for this client due to dysphagia and anorexia. However, it is not the immediate priority. Nutritional interventions can be implemented once the risk of aspiration is addressed.
Difficulty swallowing can lead to inadequate intake and malnutrition, but ensuring airway safety is the primary concern.
Anorexia can further contribute to nutritional deficits, but preventing aspiration is the most pressing issue.
Choice C is the priority nursing problem because:
The client's dysphagia puts them at immediate risk for aspiration, which can lead to pneumonia, respiratory failure, and even death.
Addressing the risk of aspiration is essential to ensure the client's safety and prevent life-threatening complications. It's crucial to implement interventions to minimize the risk of aspiration, such as:
Elevating the head of the bed during meals and for 30-60 minutes after eating Thickening liquids and pureeing foods
Encouraging small, frequent meals
Monitoring for signs of aspiration, such as coughing, choking, or difficulty breathing
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice B rationale:
Gravity Facilitates Drainage:
Positioning the patient strategically utilizes gravity to encourage the flow of fluids and secretions away from the surgical site. This aids in preventing fluid accumulation and potential infection.
Reduces Pressure on Surgical Site:
Certain positions can minimize pressure on the incision and internal organs, promoting healing and reducing discomfort.
This is particularly important for patients with comorbidities like hypertension and heart failure, as they may have impaired wound healing and be more susceptible to respiratory complications.
Enhances Respiratory Function:
Specific positions can improve lung expansion and ventilation, which is essential for patients with a history of heart failure or respiratory issues.
This helps prevent atelectasis (collapsed lung areas) and pneumonia, which are common postoperative risks.
Common Post-Cholecystectomy Positions:
Semi-Fowler's Position:
The head of the bed is elevated 30-45 degrees, with knees slightly bent.
This position eases breathing, reduces pressure on the incision, and promotes drainage of fluids. Right Side-Lying Position:
The patient lies on their right side with a pillow between their knees.
This position encourages drainage from the liver and gallbladder, aiding in bile flow. Left Side-Lying Position:
The patient lies on their left side with a pillow between their knees.
This position promotes drainage from the stomach and pancreas, assisting in digestion. Supine Position:
The patient lies flat on their back with a pillow under their knees.
This position may be used for short periods, but prolonged supine positioning can increase pressure on the incision and lungs. High Fowler's Position:
The head of the bed is elevated 60-90 degrees, with knees slightly bent.
This position is often used for patients with respiratory issues or difficulty breathing, as it improves lung expansion.
Choice C rationale:
Performing drainage immediately after meals aids in efficient removal of bile and gastric secretions, preventing complications such as:
Bile Reflux:
Delayed drainage can cause bile to back up into the stomach, leading to nausea, vomiting, and discomfort. Infection:
Accumulation of fluids in the surgical site can increase the risk of bacterial growth and infection. Pancreatitis:
In rare cases, delayed drainage can cause inflammation of the pancreas due to obstruction of the pancreatic duct.
I'll address the rationales for choices A and D in the following sections.
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