The healthcare provider prescribes bismuth subsalicylate, metronidazole, tetracycline, and pantoprazole for a client with a Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection.
Prior to administering the
H. pylori treatment regimen, the nurse should review the electronic medical record for which medication?
Famotidine.
Loperamide.
Aspirin.
Ipratropium.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (H2RA) that decreases gastric acid secretion. It is often used to treat conditions such as ulcers, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and heartburn.
Bismuth subsalicylate, metronidazole, tetracycline, and pantoprazole are all medications used in the treatment of H. pylori infection. However, these medications can interact with famotidine, potentially leading to decreased efficacy or increased side effects.
Therefore, it is important for the nurse to review the client's electronic medical record for any current or recent use of famotidine before administering the H. pylori treatment regimen. This will help to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the treatment.
Choice B rationale:
Loperamide is an antidiarrheal medication. It is not typically used in the treatment of H. pylori infection and is not known to interact with the medications used in this regimen.
Choice C rationale:
Aspirin is a salicylate medication that is often used to treat pain, fever, and inflammation. It can also be used to prevent blood clots. However, aspirin can interact with bismuth subsalicylate, potentially leading to increased risk of bleeding.
Therefore, it is important for the nurse to assess the client's risk of bleeding before administering the H. pylori treatment regimen if they are also taking aspirin.
Choice D rationale:
Ipratropium is a bronchodilator medication that is used to treat asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is not typically used in the treatment of H. pylori infection and is not known to interact with the medications used in this regimen.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Diminished breath sounds in the right lung: This finding suggests that there is still some inflammation or fluid in the right lung, which is not consistent with fully effective treatment. Normal breath sounds should be clear and equal bilaterally.
PaCO2 55 mm Hg on a blood gas: This finding is slightly elevated, indicating that the patient may be having some difficulty clearing carbon dioxide from the lungs. A normal PaCO2 is 35-45 mm Hg.
Rhonchi in the right lung: Rhonchi are a type of abnormal breath sound that is caused by secretions in the airways. This finding suggests that there is still some inflammation or infection in the right lung.
Choice B rationale:
Oxygen saturation greater than 94%: This finding is within the normal range and indicates that the patient is getting enough oxygen.
Client ambulates without shortness of breath: This finding is a positive sign that the patient's respiratory status is improving. Symmetric chest expansion: This finding indicates that both lungs are expanding equally, which is a good sign.
Choice C rationale:
The assessment findings are mixed, with some findings suggesting improvement (oxygen saturation, ambulation without shortness of breath, symmetric chest expansion) and some findings suggesting that the infection is not fully resolved (diminished breath sounds, elevated PaCO2, rhonchi). This suggests that the treatment has been partially effective, but that the patient may need further treatment to fully resolve the pneumonia.
Choice D rationale:
It is important to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment over time, but the assessment findings in this case are clear enough to determine that the treatment has been partially effective.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Autoimmune responses occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues. They are not typically triggered by allergens like bee stings.
Autoimmune responses often develop slowly over time and present with symptoms related to the specific tissues being attacked.
The rapid onset of symptoms in this case, along with the specific symptoms of rash, shortness of breath, and low blood pressure, are not characteristic of an autoimmune response.
Choice B rationale:
Type II hypersensitivity reactions involve antibodies that target and destroy cells or tissues. These reactions often take hours or days to develop, rather than minutes.
Examples of type II hypersensitivity reactions include transfusion reactions, hemolytic disease of the newborn, and some autoimmune diseases.
The rapid onset of symptoms in this case is not consistent with a type II hypersensitivity reaction.
Choice C rationale:
Cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions involve T cells that directly attack cells or tissues. These reactions typically take 1-3 days to develop.
Examples of cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions include contact dermatitis (e.g., poison ivy), graft-versus-host disease, and some drug reactions.
The rapid onset of symptoms in this case, as well as the specific symptoms of rash, shortness of breath, and low blood pressure, are not characteristic of a cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction.
Choice D rationale:
IgE response hypersensitivity reactions are the most immediate type of allergic reaction.
They are mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies, which bind to mast cells and basophils.
When an allergen (like bee venom) cross-links IgE antibodies on mast cells, it triggers the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators.
These mediators cause vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, smooth muscle contraction, and mucus secretion, leading to the characteristic symptoms of an allergic reaction.
The rapid onset of symptoms in this case, including rash, shortness of breath, and low blood pressure, are consistent with an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction.
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