The laboratory notifies the night nurse that the patient has a critical magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L. The patient has a do-not-resuscitate order. The nurse does not inform the practitioner because of the patient’s code status. In doing so, the nurse is negligent for which action?

Failure to analyze the level of care needed by the patient.

Failure to respect the patient’s wishes.

Wrongful death.

Failure to take appropriate action.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Analyzing care levels is important, but the nurse’s negligence lies in not addressing the critical magnesium level. Reporting to the practitioner is the appropriate action, making this incorrect, as it’s less specific than the failure to act on a critical lab result.

Choice B reason: Respecting patient wishes relates to DNR but doesn’t negate the need to report critical labs for non-resuscitative care. Failure to act is the issue, making this incorrect, as it misapplies the DNR to the nurse’s duty to address the magnesium level.

Choice C reason: Wrongful death assumes patient harm or death, which isn’t indicated here. Failure to act on the critical magnesium level is the negligence, making this incorrect, as it overstates the outcome compared to the nurse’s inaction on the lab result.

Choice D reason: Failure to take appropriate action, such as reporting a critical magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L, is negligent, regardless of DNR status. This aligns with nursing standards, making it the correct action the nurse neglected, as critical labs require practitioner notification.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Checking the drainage bag level ensures it’s below the abdomen to promote gravity-dependent outflow. This addresses reduced outflow in peritoneal dialysis, making it a correct action the nurse would take to resolve the inflow-outflow discrepancy safely.

Choice B reason: Repositioning to the side can dislodge catheter obstructions or improve drainage in peritoneal dialysis. This is a standard intervention for low outflow, making it a correct action the nurse would perform to correct the client’s dialysis flow issue.

Choice C reason: Good body alignment prevents catheter kinking and promotes effective drainage in peritoneal dialysis. This addresses outflow issues, making it a correct action the nurse would take to ensure proper function of the dialysis system for the client.

Choice D reason: Checking for kinks in the dialysis system identifies mechanical causes of reduced outflow. This is a key troubleshooting step, making it a correct action the nurse would perform to resolve the inflow-outflow imbalance in the client’s peritoneal dialysis.

Choice E reason: Contacting the provider is premature before troubleshooting mechanical issues like kinks or positioning. Checking the drainage bag is a priority, making this incorrect, as it delays the nurse’s initial actions to correct the dialysis outflow problem independently.

Choice F reason: Increasing the flow rate doesn’t address outflow obstruction and may worsen fluid imbalance. Repositioning is more appropriate, making this incorrect, as it’s not a safe action compared to the nurse’s focus on resolving mechanical dialysis issues first.

A. Maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status. B. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. C. Give small, frequent high-calorie feedings. D. Maintain the client in a supine and flat position. E. Give hydromorphone intravenously as prescribed for pain. F. Maintain intravenous fluids at 10 mL/hr to keep the vein open.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: NPO status rests the pancreas, reducing enzyme secretion in acute pancreatitis. This aligns with treatment protocols, making it a correct intervention the nurse would expect to be prescribed for the client to manage pancreatic inflammation effectively.

Choice B reason: Coughing and deep breathing prevent respiratory complications like atelectasis in pancreatitis patients, who are often immobile. This aligns with standard care, making it a correct intervention the nurse would anticipate in the client’s treatment plan.

Choice C reason: Small, frequent high-calorie feedings are contraindicated in acute pancreatitis, as they stimulate the pancreas. NPO is correct, making this incorrect, as it’s inappropriate for the nurse’s expected interventions in managing acute pancreatitis.

Choice D reason: Supine and flat positioning may increase discomfort and aspiration risk in pancreatitis. Semi-Fowler’s is preferred, making this incorrect, as it’s not an expected intervention compared to the nurse’s focus on optimal positioning for the client.

Choice E reason: Hydromorphone IV provides effective pain relief in acute pancreatitis, reducing patient discomfort. This aligns with pain management protocols, making it a correct intervention the nurse would expect to be prescribed for the client’s care.

Choice F reason: IV fluids at 10 mL/hr are insufficient for pancreatitis, which requires aggressive hydration. Higher rates are standard, making this incorrect, as it’s inadequate compared to the nurse’s expected fluid management in acute pancreatitis treatment.

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The laboratory notifies the night nurse that the patient has a critical magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L. The patient has a do-not-resuscitate order. The nurse does not inform the practitioner because of the patient’s code status. In doing so, the nurse is negligent for which action?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse monitoring a client receiving peritoneal dialysis notes that the client’s outflow is less than the inflow. Which actions would the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]

Explanation

The nurse is reviewing the prescription for a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which interventions would the nurse expect to be prescribed for the client? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

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