The nurse assesses a client postoperatively who has an arterial line in the right radial artery. Assessment findings include pallor, paresthesia, and slow capillary refill in the client's right-hand fingers. Which action should the nurse take?
Perform the Allen test.
Elevate the client's right arm.
Flush the line with heparinized saline.
Notify the healthcare provider.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Perform the Allen test. The Allen test is performed before inserting a radial arterial line to assess ulnar artery patency and ensure adequate collateral circulation. Since the arterial line is already placed and the client is showing signs of compromised circulation (pallor, paresthesia, and slow capillary refill), immediate intervention is required rather than further pre-insertion testing.
B. Elevate the client's right arm. Elevating the arm does not directly resolve arterial compromise and may further reduce perfusion by impairing arterial blood flow. The priority is to assess and address potential ischemia caused by arterial line complications.
C. Flush the line with heparinized saline. Flushing an arterial line is appropriate for maintaining patency, but in this case, it may worsen ischemia if the catheter is causing an obstruction or arterial spasm. Additionally, flushing should never be done forcefully due to the risk of embolization.
D. Notify the healthcare provider. The pallor, paresthesia, and delayed capillary refill suggest arterial insufficiency, possible thrombosis, or arterial spasm, which can lead to tissue ischemia and necrosis if not addressed promptly. The healthcare provider should be notified immediately to assess the need for interventions such as removal of the arterial line, vascular assessment, or anticoagulation therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Junctional tachycardia: Junctional tachycardia originates from the AV node, typically with a narrow QRS, absent or inverted P waves, and a rate of 100–180 bpm. The strip does not show these features.
B. Second-degree Type II AV block (3:1).Type II AV block (Mobitz II) shows dropped QRS complexes with constant PR intervals before conducted beats. This strip does not show missing QRS complexes in a 3:1 pattern.
C. Ventricular fibrillation. VF is characterized by a chaotic, disorganized rhythm with no discernible P waves, QRS complexes, or T waves, completely different from this organized flutter pattern.
D. Atrial flutter is characterized by regular, rapid atrial depolarizations (flutter waves) at a rate of 250–350 bpm. These waves create a "sawtooth" pattern on the ECG.The ventricular response may be regular or irregular, depending on AV conduction. This is different from atrial fibrillation (which has irregularly irregular R-R intervals and no discrete P waves).
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Prepare to give phenytoin IV as prescribed. Phenytoin is used for seizure prophylaxis in clients with moderate to severe head injuries (GCS ≤ 8–10). A GCS score of 14 indicates mild head injury, and prophylactic anticonvulsants may not be necessary unless ordered for specific risk factors.
B. Perform a substernal rub to evoke a response to pain. A substernal rub (painful stimulus) is used to assess response in unconscious or unresponsive clients (GCS ≤ 8). With a GCS of 14, the client is alert or nearly fully conscious, making a painful stimulus unnecessary and inappropriate.
C. Promptly notify the healthcare provider (HCP) of the GCS score. A GCS of 14 is not a critical or emergency finding, as it indicates mild neurological impairment. While the HCP should be updated on significant changes, routine monitoring is sufficient unless deterioration occurs.
D. Continue monitoring the client's GCS score every 2 hours. Frequent neurological assessments are crucial in head injury management to detect worsening conditions like increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) or cerebral edema. Monitoring the GCS every 2 hours ensures timely intervention if the client’s condition changes.
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