The nurse assesses vital signs for a patient admitted 2 days ago with gram-negative sepsis: temperature of 101.2°F, blood pressure of 90/56 mm Hg, pulse of 92 beats/min, and respirations of 34 breaths/min. Which action would the nurse take next?
Give the PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol).
Notify the health care provider of these findings.
Obtain oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry.
Give the scheduled IV antibiotic.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Acetaminophen reduces fever, but 101.2°F isn’t critical in sepsis, where hypotension (90/56 mmHg) signals shock. Addressing fever alone ignores systemic instability, delaying urgent intervention for a deteriorating patient needing comprehensive management.
Choice B reason: Hypotension (90/56 mmHg) and tachypnea (34 breaths/min) indicate septic shock, requiring immediate escalation. Notifying the provider ensures rapid fluid resuscitation and vasopressors, critical in gram-negative sepsis to reverse hypoperfusion and prevent organ failure.
Choice C reason: Pulse oximetry assesses oxygenation, useful in sepsis with tachypnea. However, hypotension is more immediately life-threatening, prioritizing provider notification for systemic treatment over a single parameter check that delays broader stabilization efforts.
Choice D reason: IV antibiotics target sepsis’s cause, but a scheduled dose doesn’t address acute hypotension urgency. Provider notification supersedes routine administration, as shock requires fluids and pressors now, not just infection control, to save the patient.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Vasoconstrictors like oxymetazoline shrink vessels, aiding epistaxis control. It’s a secondary step requiring preparation, not first, as direct pressure is faster, non-invasive, and effective for initial hemostasis in most anterior bleeds.
Choice B reason: Packing with a balloon stops severe bleeding but is invasive and later in management. Pressure is the first, simpler action; packing escalates care unnecessarily before basic measures are tried in acute epistaxis.
Choice C reason: Silver nitrate cauterizes vessels, useful for persistent bleeding. It’s not first, requiring setup and assessment after pressure fails, as most epistaxis resolves with compression, making this a subsequent intervention.
Choice D reason: Squeezing nostrils compresses Kiesselbach’s plexus, stopping most anterior nosebleeds within 10 minutes. It’s the immediate, evidence-based first action, non-invasive, and effective, prioritizing rapid control before escalating to other methods.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Acetaminophen reduces fever, but 101.2°F isn’t critical in sepsis, where hypotension (90/56 mmHg) signals shock. Addressing fever alone ignores systemic instability, delaying urgent intervention for a deteriorating patient needing comprehensive management.
Choice B reason: Hypotension (90/56 mmHg) and tachypnea (34 breaths/min) indicate septic shock, requiring immediate escalation. Notifying the provider ensures rapid fluid resuscitation and vasopressors, critical in gram-negative sepsis to reverse hypoperfusion and prevent organ failure.
Choice C reason: Pulse oximetry assesses oxygenation, useful in sepsis with tachypnea. However, hypotension is more immediately life-threatening, prioritizing provider notification for systemic treatment over a single parameter check that delays broader stabilization efforts.
Choice D reason: IV antibiotics target sepsis’s cause, but a scheduled dose doesn’t address acute hypotension urgency. Provider notification supersedes routine administration, as shock requires fluids and pressors now, not just infection control, to save the patient.
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