The nurse encourages the diabetic patient by showing the HbA1c drop from 9.4 to 6.4. This reading indicates:
Reduction of risk from insulin reaction.
Less need for insulin.
Better control of hyperglycemia over the last several months.
Protection from hyperglycemia.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
An HbA1c test measures the percentage of hemoglobin that has glucose attached to it, reflecting average blood sugar levels. While better control reduces long-term complications, it does not specifically reduce the risk of an acute insulin reaction or hypoglycemia. In fact, aggressive management to lower HbA1c can sometimes increase the frequency of hypoglycemic episodes. Therefore, a drop from 9.4 to 6.4 is not a direct indicator of reduced insulin reaction risk.
Choice B rationale
A lower HbA1c level indicates that the current treatment plan is effective at managing blood glucose. It does not necessarily mean the patient needs less insulin. The patient achieved this improved level because of their current insulin regimen and lifestyle choices. Changing or reducing the insulin dose based solely on an improved HbA1c might cause the blood glucose levels to rise again, potentially leading back to the previous poorly controlled state of 9.4.
Choice C rationale
The HbA1c level provides an average of blood glucose control over the past two to three months. A reading of 9.4 indicates poor control, while 6.4 is within the recommended target range for most diabetic patients, which is usually less than 7 percent. This significant drop demonstrates that the patient has successfully maintained better control of hyperglycemia over a prolonged period. It is the gold standard for monitoring long-term glycemic stability and treatment efficacy.
Choice D rationale
While a lower HbA1c indicates that the patient has been successful in managing their blood sugar, it does not provide future protection from hyperglycemia. Diabetes is a chronic condition that requires continuous management of diet, exercise, and medication. If the patient stops following their treatment plan, their blood glucose levels will rise regardless of their previous 6.4 reading. The test is a historical record of management rather than a preventative shield.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A history of deep vein thrombosis increases a patient's risk for future venous thromboembolism and pulmonary embolism during the sedentary postoperative period. However, it is not a direct physiological risk factor for the development of a surgical site infection. Infection risk is primarily driven by factors that impair the immune response, decrease tissue perfusion, or introduce pathogens. While DVT is a significant surgical concern, it does not mechanically or biologically compromise the primary wound healing process.
Choice B rationale
A body mass index of 19 falls within the normal and healthy range of 18.5 to 24.9. Patients who are significantly underweight or morbidly obese are at higher risk for surgical site infections due to poor nutrition or poor vascularity of adipose tissue, respectively. Because this patient's BMI is within the expected parameters, they do not have the specific risks associated with malnourishment or excessive subcutaneous fat that often complicate the healing of surgical incisions and increase infection rates.
Choice C rationale
While advanced age can be a factor in slowed wound healing due to naturally declining physiological reserves, a 55-year-old individual is generally not considered to be at a significantly increased risk for infection based on age alone. Generally, the risk becomes much more pronounced in the very elderly, such as those over 75 or 80, where the immune system is significantly senescent. At 55, most individuals still possess adequate immune function and tissue regenerative capacity to heal.
Choice D rationale
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is a major risk factor for surgical site infections. Elevated blood glucose levels impair leukocyte function, specifically neutrophilic phagocytosis, which is the body's primary defense against invading bacteria. Chronic hyperglycemia also damages microvasculature, leading to decreased oxygen and nutrient delivery to the surgical site. This environment hinders the inflammatory and proliferative phases of wound healing, providing a fertile ground for bacterial growth and significantly increasing the likelihood of postoperative infection.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Excessive water intake, or psychogenic polydipsia, can lead to dilutional hyponatremia rather than a primary deficit in potassium levels. While significant fluid shifts can occur, the kidneys usually compensate by excreting dilute urine. Normal serum potassium ranges from 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. In this case, the client’s level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia. Drinking 4 liters of water daily is generally handled by healthy renal mechanisms without causing such a specific drop in potassium.
Choice B rationale
Most commercial salt substitutes are formulated using potassium chloride instead of sodium chloride to help patients reduce their sodium intake. Using these products typically increases the risk of developing hyperkalemia, where potassium levels exceed 5.0 mEq/L. It would not be a causative factor for this client’s hypokalemic state of 3.0 mEq/L. Consuming salt substitutes provides an exogenous source of the mineral, making a deficiency highly unlikely unless there were extreme malabsorption or concurrent diuretic use.
Choice C rationale
Nasogastric suctioning is a classic cause of hypokalemia because gastric fluids are rich in potassium, hydrogen, and chloride ions. Continuous removal of these secretions directly depletes the body’s potassium stores. Furthermore, the loss of gastric acid can lead to metabolic alkalosis, which causes an intracellular shift of potassium, further lowering the serum concentration below the normal 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L range. The client’s level of 3.0 mEq/L is a direct consequence of these combined physiological losses.
Choice D rationale
Spironolactone is categorized as a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts as an aldosterone antagonist in the distal renal tubules. Unlike loop or thiazide diuretics, spironolactone inhibits the excretion of potassium, which usually results in an increase in serum levels. It is often prescribed to prevent or treat hypokalemia. Therefore, the use of this medication would not cause a low potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L but would instead be a reason for the level to stay high.
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