The nurse gets hand-off report on four patients. Which patient would the nurse assess first?
Patient with urine output of 40 mL/hr for the last hour.
Patient with a blood pressure change of 128/74 to 110/88 mmHg.
Patient with oxygen saturation maintained at 94%.
Patient with a pulse change of 100 to 88 beats/min.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: A urine output of 40 mL/hr is within the acceptable range, as normal urine output is typically around 30-50 mL/hr. While it should be monitored, it does not indicate an immediate life-threatening issue requiring urgent assessment.
Choice B reason: A blood pressure change from 128/74 to 110/88 mmHg may indicate potential hemodynamic instability. Although the systolic blood pressure has decreased, the diastolic pressure has increased, which can be concerning. This patient may be at risk for developing more significant blood pressure changes or other complications, making this situation the highest priority for assessment.
Choice C reason: An oxygen saturation level of 94% is generally considered acceptable. While it is on the lower end of the normal range, it does not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition. Continuous monitoring is important, but it is not the most urgent situation compared to the blood pressure change.
Choice D reason: A pulse change from 100 to 88 beats/min represents a decrease in heart rate but remains within the normal range for adult heart rate (60-100 beats/min). While this change should be noted and monitored, it is not as urgent as the blood pressure change that may indicate hemodynamic instability.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: An increased albumin level, while noteworthy, is not typically an urgent finding to communicate immediately following paracentesis. Albumin levels can fluctuate for various reasons, and elevated levels do not generally indicate a critical issue requiring immediate intervention.
Choice B reason: A normal platelet count is a good sign, indicating that the patient has an adequate number of platelets for blood clotting and wound healing. This finding does not indicate an urgent need to notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Choice C reason: A 2-cm area of serous drainage on the dressing is relatively small and expected after a procedure like paracentesis. It suggests that the site is draining some fluid, which is normal post-procedure. While it should be monitored, it does not necessitate urgent communication unless it worsens or there are signs of infection.
Choice D reason: A heart rate of 122 beats/min is tachycardia and can indicate several potential complications, including hypovolemia (low blood volume) due to the large fluid removal, infection, or other stressors on the patient's body. This finding is the most critical to communicate to the healthcare provider promptly as it may require immediate intervention to address the underlying cause and stabilize the patient.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A heart rate of 56/min and a blood pressure of 110/70, while slightly lower than normal, may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. Bradycardia (a slow heart rate) and this blood pressure reading can be within acceptable limits for some individuals, especially if they are asymptomatic.
Choice B reason: Mitral valve regurgitation with a thready peripheral pulse indicates a decrease in cardiac output, which can be concerning. However, it may not require immediate intervention unless the client shows signs of severe decompensation or other critical symptoms. Continuous monitoring and evaluation are essential, but immediate action might not be necessary.
Choice C reason: Chest pain with inspiration in a client with pericarditis can be a symptom of the condition itself, which involves inflammation of the pericardium. While pain management and monitoring are important, this symptom alone may not necessitate immediate intervention unless it is severe or accompanied by other alarming signs.
Choice D reason: The development of slurred speech in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is a critical symptom that warrants immediate intervention. Slurred speech can be a sign of a stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA), both of which require urgent medical attention. Immediate action is needed to evaluate and manage the client's condition to prevent further complications.
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