The nurse has completed an assessment on a client with heart failure and a decreased cardiac output with an ejection fraction of 30%. Which finding should receive the highest priority?

BP 110/62, atrial fibrillation with HR 82, bilateral basilar crackles.

Weight gain of 1 kg in 3 days, BP 130/80, mild dyspnea with exercise.

SpO2 92% on 2L nasal cannula, respirations 20/min, 1+ edema of lower extremities.

Confusion, urine output 15 mL over the last 2 hours, orthopnea.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: While atrial fibrillation, bilateral basilar crackles, and a blood pressure of 110/62 indicate important findings in a client with heart failure, they are not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms in choice d. Bilateral crackles suggest fluid overload and pulmonary congestion, which require attention, but the priority should be on more critical signs of decreased perfusion.

Choice B reason: Weight gain of 1 kg in 3 days and mild dyspnea with exercise are signs of fluid retention and worsening heart failure. However, they are not as urgent as the symptoms of confusion and low urine output, which suggest severe hypoperfusion and potential organ failure.

Choice C reason: A SpO2 of 92% on 2L nasal cannula, respirations of 20/min, and 1+ edema of the lower extremities indicate mild hypoxemia and fluid overload. Although these findings are important and need management, they are not as critical as the symptoms in choice d, which suggest severe hypoperfusion and a potential emergency.

Choice D reason: Confusion, urine output of 15 mL over the last 2 hours, and orthopnea are the most concerning findings. Confusion indicates decreased cerebral perfusion, which is a sign of severe heart failure and possibly impending cardiogenic shock. Low urine output (oliguria) suggests poor renal perfusion, indicating that the kidneys are not receiving enough blood flow. Orthopnea (difficulty breathing while lying down) is a classic symptom of severe heart failure and pulmonary congestion. These symptoms suggest that the client is in a critical condition that requires immediate intervention to improve perfusion and prevent further deterioration.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Obtaining daily weights of the client is the best action to assess the therapeutic effect of furosemide in managing early chronic kidney disease. Daily weights provide valuable information about fluid balance and the effectiveness of the diuretic in reducing fluid retention. Consistent weight monitoring helps determine if the medication is achieving its goal of managing fluid overload, which is a common issue in CKD patients.

Choice B reason: Assessing acid-base balance is important in managing CKD, but it is not the primary action to assess the therapeutic effect of furosemide. While diuretics can influence electrolyte levels and acid-base balance, monitoring fluid status through daily weights is more directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of the medication.

Choice C reason: Assessing the client's serum creatinine is crucial for monitoring kidney function and progression of CKD. However, it is not the primary action to determine the therapeutic effect of furosemide. The focus of furosemide therapy is to manage fluid balance, and daily weights provide a more immediate and relevant assessment of this effect.

Choice D reason: Auscultating heart sounds is part of a comprehensive assessment of a CKD patient, but it is not the best action to evaluate the therapeutic effect of furosemide. Heart sounds can provide information about cardiac function and potential complications, but they do not directly measure the effectiveness of fluid management achieved by the diuretic.

A. Woman with a blood pressure of 158/90 mm Hg. B. Patient with Kussmaul respirations. C. Man with skin itching from head to toe. D. Patient with halitosis and stomatitis.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: A blood pressure of 158/90 mm Hg in a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is elevated and requires management to prevent complications. However, it is not as immediately life-threatening as Kussmaul respirations, which indicate severe metabolic acidosis.

Choice B reason: The patient with Kussmaul respirations should be assessed first. Kussmaul respirations are deep, labored breathing patterns typically associated with severe metabolic acidosis, such as diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) or severe kidney failure. This condition requires immediate intervention to correct the underlying acidosis and stabilize the patient's condition.

Choice C reason: Itching (pruritus) is a common symptom in CKD due to the accumulation of uremic toxins. While it can be very uncomfortable and requires treatment, it is not as urgent as Kussmaul respirations, which indicate a potentially life-threatening situation.

Choice D reason: Halitosis (bad breath) and stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth) can occur in CKD due to the buildup of uremic toxins and other factors. These symptoms need attention, but they do not indicate an immediate threat to the patient's life compared to Kussmaul respirations.

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The nurse has completed an assessment on a client with heart failure and a decreased cardiac output with an ejection fraction of 30%. Which finding should receive the highest priority?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is taking furosemide 40 mg/day for management of early chronic kidney disease (CKD). To assess the therapeutic effect of the medication, what action of the nurse is best?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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The nurse has completed an assessment on a client with heart failure and a decreased cardiac output with an ejection fraction of 30%. Which finding should receive the highest priority?

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