The nurse implements a primary prevention program for sexually transmitted diseases in a nurse-managed health center. Which outcome Indicates that the program was effective?
New screening protocols were developed, validated, and implemented.
Clients who incurred disease complications promptly received rehabilitation.
Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests.
More than half of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect - Developing and implementing new screening protocols does not directly indicate the effectiveness of a primary prevention program. It might indicate improved detection, but not necessarily prevention.
B) Incorrect - This outcome relates to secondary prevention (rehabilitation after disease complications) rather than primary prevention.
C) Correct- An improvement in average client scores on risk factor knowledge tests suggests that the primary prevention program has successfully educated clients about behaviors and practices that can help prevent sexually transmitted diseases. This improvement indicates that clients have a better understanding of the risks and protective measures, which is a key indicator of program effectiveness.
D) Incorrect - Diagnosing clients early in their disease process is an outcome of early detection (secondary prevention), not primary prevention.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infections.
However, in the case of MRSA, contact precautions are needed due to the risk of direct transmission through physical contact.
B) Correct- Monitoring the white blood cell count is important to assess for signs of infection, as an elevated count might indicate an ongoing inflammatory response.
C) Correct- Foul-smelling drainage from an incision with suspected MRSA indicates a potential infection. Contact precautions are appropriate for MRSA, which include wearing gloves and gowns when entering the client's room to prevent the spread of the bacteria.
D) Correct- Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity helps identify the specific microorganisms causing the infection and guides appropriate antibiotic treatment.
E) Incorrect- A low-bacteria diet is not relevant to the situation. MRSA is caused by a bacterium, not by dietary factors. The focus should be on infection control measures and appropriate medical interventions.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct- With a significantly low platelet count, the risk of bleeding is elevated. Assessing urine and stool for occult (hidden) blood is important to detect any signs of internal bleeding that may not be immediately apparent. A low platelet count increases the risk of spontaneous bleeding, which can be life-threatening if undetected.
B) Incorrect- This choice is related to neutropenia, not thrombocytopenia. Neutropenia, or low neutrophil count, increases the risk of infection, which is why monitoring temperature frequently is important.
C) Incorrect- Monitoring for signs of activity intolerance is not directly related to the low platelet count. The primary concern with thrombocytopenia is the risk of bleeding, not generalized activity intolerance.
D) Incorrect- Requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks is not relevant to the client's current condition of low platelet count. This action is related to infection control and protection from respiratory infections.
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