The nurse implements a primary prevention program for sexually transmitted diseases in a nurse-managed health center. Which outcome Indicates that the program was effective?
New screening protocols were developed, validated, and implemented.
Clients who incurred disease complications promptly received rehabilitation.
Average client scores improved on specific risk factor knowledge tests.
More than half of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect - Developing and implementing new screening protocols does not directly indicate the effectiveness of a primary prevention program. It might indicate improved detection, but not necessarily prevention.
B) Incorrect - This outcome relates to secondary prevention (rehabilitation after disease complications) rather than primary prevention.
C) Correct- An improvement in average client scores on risk factor knowledge tests suggests that the primary prevention program has successfully educated clients about behaviors and practices that can help prevent sexually transmitted diseases. This improvement indicates that clients have a better understanding of the risks and protective measures, which is a key indicator of program effectiveness.
D) Incorrect - Diagnosing clients early in their disease process is an outcome of early detection (secondary prevention), not primary prevention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Her fasting 1-hour glucose screening level, which was done 1 week prior, is 164 mg/dl. (9.1 mmol/L) Her 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test results reveal a fasting blood sugar of 168 (9.3 mmol/L) and a two-hour postprandial of 220 mg/dL (12.2 mmol/L).
The client has gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM), which is a condition that affects some pregnant women and causes high blood sugar levels. This is bad during pregnancy because it can increase the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby, such as preeclampsia, macrosomia, birth trauma, neonatal hypoglycemia, and congenital anomalies. The client needs to follow a diet and exercise plan to control her blood sugar levels and prevent further complications. She may also need to take insulin injections or oral medications if diet and exercise are not enough. The client should monitor her blood sugar levels regularly and report any abnormal results to her health care provider. The client should also have regular prenatal visits and ultrasounds to check the growth and development of the baby.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A 12-year-old reporting neck, arm, and lower back discomfort:
- This child is reporting discomfort, which is concerning, but it doesn't indicate an immediate life-threatening condition. However, a thorough assessment is needed to rule out any serious injuries, especially to the spine.
B. An 8-year-old with a full leg air splint for a possible broken tibia:
- While a possible broken tibia requires attention, it is not as immediately critical as symptoms such as projectile vomiting. Splinting can help stabilize the limb, but it is not an emergency that requires immediate attention compared to potential neurological issues.
C. A 6-year-old with multiple superficial lacerations of all extremities:
- Superficial lacerations, although they require care, are generally not immediately life-threatening. The child needs appropriate wound care and assessment for any deeper injuries, but this can be addressed in a timely manner without immediate urgency.
D. An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting:
- This is the most concerning presentation among the options. Headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting could be indicative of a severe head injury, and these neurological symptoms require urgent evaluation to assess for conditions such as a concussion, intracranial bleed, or increased intracranial pressure.
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