The nurse is assessing a client who was recently diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease and is taking carbidopa-levodopa. The client is concerned that the medication is not working. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Ask if the client’s morning voids are dark colored.

Evaluate the client for signs of dyskinesia.

Determine if the client is taking the medication before meals.

Explore what the client means by the drug “is not working.”

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) Ask if the client’s morning voids are dark colored:
This intervention pertains to monitoring for potential adverse effects of carbidopa-levodopa, such as urine discoloration due to the breakdown of levodopa into dopamine. However, it does not directly address the client’s concern about the medication not working. While assessing for adverse effects is important, it may not provide immediate insight into the effectiveness of the medication in managing Parkinson’s disease symptoms.

B) Evaluate the client for signs of dyskinesia:
Dyskinesia refers to involuntary, abnormal movements that can occur as a side effect of long-term treatment with carbidopa-levodopa. While assessing for dyskinesia is essential during the management of Parkinson’s disease, it does not directly address the client’s immediate concern about the medication’s efficacy. It would be more appropriate to address the client’s primary concern first before assessing for potential adverse effects.

C) Determine if the client is taking the medication before meals:
The timing of medication administration, particularly with carbidopa-levodopa, can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Taking the medication with or without food can influence its onset of action and duration of effect. However, this intervention assumes that the client may not be taking the medication correctly, which may not necessarily be the case. It’s important to first clarify the client’s perception of the medication’s effectiveness before addressing administration instructions.

D) Explore what the client means by the drug “is not working.”
This option is correct. The nurse should prioritize exploring the client’s perception of the medication’s efficacy. Understanding the client’s specific concerns, such as which symptoms are not adequately controlled or how they define “not working,” can provide valuable information for further assessment and intervention. By actively listening to the client’s perspective, the nurse can collaboratively address any misconceptions, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and provide education or reassurance accordingly.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Serum ammonia level of 30 pg/dl (17.62 μmol /dL): Serum ammonia level is not directly affected by sodium polystyrene sulfonate administration. Ammonia levels are typically related to liver function and are not relevant in assessing the effectiveness of this medication for hyperkalemia.
B) Serum glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L): Serum glucose level is unrelated to the action of sodium polystyrene sulfonate. While hyperkalemia can sometimes lead to glucose metabolism abnormalities, the glucose level alone does not provide information about the medication's effectiveness.
C) Serum potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L (3.8 mmol/L): Sodium polystyrene sulfonate, also known as Kayexalate, is a medication used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium excretion through feces. A decrease in serum potassium level within the normal range indicates that the medication has been effective in lowering potassium levels, which is the intended therapeutic outcome in the context of treating hyperkalemia associated with acute kidney injury (AKI).
D) Hemoglobin level of 13.5 g/dL (135 g/L): Hemoglobin level is unrelated to the action of sodium polystyrene sulfonate. It reflects the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells and is not directly influenced by potassium-lowering medications.

A. Urinary output equal intake. B. No terminal urinary dribbling. C. Denies stress incontinence. D. Absence of xerostomia.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Urinary output equal intake:
This assessment finding suggests that the client is voiding an amount of urine equivalent to their fluid intake, indicating effective bladder emptying. Bethanechol is a cholinergic agonist that stimulates bladder contraction, helping to improve urinary retention by promoting the expulsion of urine from the bladder. Equal urinary output and intake indicate that the bladder is adequately emptying, which is a positive response to bethanechol therapy.

B) No terminal urinary dribbling:
While the absence of terminal urinary dribbling may be an indicator of improved bladder emptying, it is not as definitive as assessing urinary output equal to intake. Terminal urinary dribbling refers to the involuntary loss of urine that occurs after completing urination due to incomplete emptying of the bladder. While its absence may suggest improved bladder emptying, it is not as reliable an indicator as measuring urinary output.

C) Denies stress incontinence:
The absence of stress incontinence, which is the involuntary loss of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure (such as coughing, sneezing, or lifting), is not directly related to the effectiveness of bethanechol for urinary retention. Bethanechol primarily targets urinary retention by stimulating bladder contraction rather than addressing stress incontinence, which involves weakness of the pelvic floor muscles.

D) Absence of xerostomia:
Xerostomia refers to dryness of the mouth due to decreased saliva production and is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications. Bethanechol, as a cholinergic agonist, may actually increase saliva production and is not typically associated with xerostomia. However, the absence of xerostomia does not directly indicate the effectiveness of bethanechol for urinary retention.

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The nurse is assessing a client who was recently diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease and is taking carbidopa-levodopa. The client is concerned that the medication is not working. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the prescription bethanechol is effective for a client diagnosed with urinary retention?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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