The nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure who reports new-onset dyspnea and fatigue. Which finding requires the most immediate intervention?
Crackles in bilateral lower lobes.
Heart rate of 92 beats/minute.
Blood pressure of 138/86 mm Hg.
Peripheral edema 1+ in ankles.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Crackles in bilateral lower lobes indicate pulmonary edema in heart failure, where reduced cardiac output causes fluid backup into alveoli, impairing gas exchange and causing dyspnea. This life-threatening emergency requires immediate diuretics or oxygen to reduce preload, preventing respiratory failure or hypoxia, prioritizing intervention.
Choice B reason: A heart rate of 92 beats/minute is normal and not urgent in heart failure, where dyspnea and fatigue suggest fluid overload. Crackles indicate pulmonary edema, a critical issue compromising oxygenation, necessitating immediate action to restore respiratory function, making heart rate less concerning.
Choice C reason: Blood pressure of 138/86 mm Hg is mildly elevated but not critical in heart failure. Crackles signal pulmonary edema, where fluid in alveoli impairs gas exchange, risking hypoxia. This requires urgent intervention like furosemide, as respiratory compromise is more immediate than managing stable blood pressure.
Choice D reason: Peripheral edema 1+ indicates fluid retention in heart failure but is less urgent than crackles, which signify pulmonary edema. Alveolar fluid causes dyspnea and hypoxia, requiring immediate diuretics. Edema is chronic, making respiratory assessment and intervention the priority to prevent acute respiratory failure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Avolition in schizophrenia is lack of motivation for goal-directed tasks, linked to prefrontal dopamine deficits. Performing activities of daily living (e.g., hygiene) shows improved motivation, achieving the goal. This reflects enhanced frontal lobe function, addressing the negative symptom of avolition, critical for functional recovery in schizophrenia.
Choice B reason: Explaining answers to open-ended questions shows cognitive ability, not motivation. Avolition impairs initiative for tasks like self-care, not verbal skills. Schizophrenia’s negative symptoms reduce drive, and this behavior does not address the motivational deficit targeted, making it less relevant than performing daily activities.
Choice C reason: Reporting enjoyment suggests improved affect but not motivation. Avolition involves initiating tasks, not emotional response. Performing daily activities directly demonstrates overcoming avolition, a negative symptom of reduced drive, aligning with the goal of enhancing goal-directed behavior in schizophrenia, making this less indicative.
Choice D reason: Sharing a story indicates social engagement, impaired in schizophrenia but not specific to avolition, which affects motivation for routine tasks. Performing daily activities directly shows improved initiative, addressing the treatment goal’s focus on overcoming dopamine-related motivational deficits, making social sharing less relevant.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering warfarin with an INR of 4.8 is dangerous, as it exceeds the therapeutic range (2.0–3.0), indicating excessive anticoagulation. This risks bleeding, as warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Notifying the provider ensures dose adjustment or reversal, preventing hemorrhage, making this action unsafe.
Choice B reason: An INR of 4.8 indicates over-anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation, increasing bleeding risk due to warfarin’s inhibition of clotting factors. Notifying the provider is critical for dose reduction or vitamin K administration, addressing the pathophysiological risk of hemorrhage, ensuring patient safety and preventing life-threatening complications.
Choice C reason: Encouraging green leafy vegetables, high in vitamin K, counteracts warfarin, lowering INR, but is inappropriate without provider guidance at INR 4.8, risking bleeding. Provider notification ensures controlled management, as unregulated dietary changes disrupt anticoagulation stability, making this action potentially harmful.
Choice D reason: Monitoring for bleeding is important but secondary to notifying the provider at INR 4.8, indicating critical over-anticoagulation. Immediate provider intervention adjusts warfarin or administers reversal agents, preventing hemorrhage. Monitoring delays urgent action needed to correct the clotting factor imbalance, making it less immediate.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
