The nurse is assessing a patient who is diagnosed with inflammatory bowel disease and is requiring inpatient treatment at a hospital. What medication will the nurse provide when caring for this patient?
Ondansetron on a PRN basis
Vitamin B12 injections to prevent pernicious anemia
Antidiarrheal medications 30 minutes before a meal
Beta adrenergic blockers to reduce bowel motility
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Ondansetron is an antiemetic given to control nausea and vomiting, which are common symptoms in patients with inflammatory bowel disease, especially when they have a flare-up.
Choice B reason: Vitamin B12 injections are crucial for preventing pernicious anemia but are not specific treatments for acute management of inflammatory bowel disease symptoms.
Choice C reason: Antidiarrheal medications should be used cautiously in inflammatory bowel disease as they can worsen symptoms or lead to complications like toxic megacolon.
Choice D reason: Beta-adrenergic blockers are not used to reduce bowel motility and are not a part of the standard treatment regimen for inflammatory bowel disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Fruity-smelling breath is a symptom of ketoacidosis, not hypoglycemia. Ketoacidosis occurs when the body produces high levels of ketones due to a lack of insulin, leading to metabolic acidosis.
Choice B reason: Sweating and nervousness are common symptoms of hypoglycemia. Low blood glucose levels trigger the release of adrenaline, which causes these symptoms. Patients should check their blood glucose when experiencing these signs to prevent severe hypoglycemia.
Choice C reason: Nausea and vomiting are more associated with ketoacidosis. High blood glucose levels and the presence of ketones can cause gastrointestinal upset.
Choice D reason: Increased thirst and urination are also symptoms of hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis. These symptoms result from the body's attempt to eliminate excess glucose and ketones through urine.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Removal of the transplanted kidney is the definitive intervention for hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection occurs within minutes to hours after transplantation due to pre-formed antibodies against the donor organ. This form of rejection is irreversible and requires immediate removal of the transplanted kidney to prevent further complications and damage to the recipient's health.
Choice B reason: An increase in the dose of cyclosporine therapy is not effective in hyperacute rejection. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressive medication used to prevent rejection, but in cases of hyperacute rejection, the rapid and severe immune response cannot be controlled by increasing the dose. The affected kidney must be removed.
Choice C reason: A new kidney transplant from a living donor is not an immediate intervention for hyperacute rejection. Before considering another transplant, it is essential to identify and address the underlying cause of hyperacute rejection and ensure that the recipient's immune system is adequately managed to prevent recurrence.
Choice D reason: Administration of methylprednisolone sodium succinate is typically used to manage acute rejection episodes but is not effective for hyperacute rejection. The rapid onset and severity of hyperacute rejection necessitate the removal of the transplanted organ rather than relying on immunosuppressive medications.
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