The nurse is caring for a 34-year-old woman who developed Stevens-Johnson syndrome while undergoing treatment with carbamazepine (Tegretol). The patient is being transferred from the intensive care unit to the medical unit.
The nurse knows the best choice of roommates for this patient is which of the following?
A 28-year-old woman diagnosed with diarrhea.
A 40-year-old man with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).
A 68-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation.
A 72-year-old man with fever of unknown origin.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
A patient with diarrhea may have a communicable disease, such as C. difficile or Norovirus. The patient with Stevens-Johnson syndrome has compromised skin integrity, making them highly susceptible to opportunistic infections. Placing them with a patient who has a potential infection poses a significant risk of cross-contamination and sepsis, which is a life-threatening complication for this vulnerable patient.
Choice B rationale
A patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has a colonization or infection with a resistant bacteria. Stevens-Johnson syndrome involves extensive epidermal detachment, creating large areas of open, denuded skin, similar to a burn injury. This makes the patient extremely vulnerable to infection from resistant organisms like MRSA, which could lead to severe systemic infection and sepsis.
Choice C rationale
A patient with atrial fibrillation is not contagious and does not pose an infectious risk. Atrial fibrillation is a cardiac arrhythmia caused by an electrical conduction abnormality in the heart, with no risk of transmission. This roommate choice is the safest because it minimizes the risk of infection for the patient with Stevens-Johnson syndrome, whose compromised skin barrier makes them highly susceptible.
Choice D rationale
A fever of unknown origin (FUO) suggests an underlying infectious process that has not yet been identified. This poses a high risk of cross-contamination to the patient with Stevens-Johnson syndrome. The patient with compromised skin integrity is at an extreme risk of contracting a new infection from an undiagnosed and potentially contagious pathogen, which could lead to a severe and rapid decline in their condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Flail chest is the paradoxical movement of a section of the chest wall, caused by multiple rib fractures in two or more places. It is characterized by paradoxical chest wall motion, where the injured segment moves in during inspiration and out during expiration. While it is a severe chest injury, it does not typically involve a large accumulation of blood in the pleural space, which is the defining characteristic mentioned in the patient's presentation.
Choice B rationale
A tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition where air enters the pleural space but cannot exit, causing a rapid increase in intrathoracic pressure. This leads to tracheal deviation, hypotension, and profound respiratory distress. While it can cause a collapsed lung and dyspnea, the defining characteristic is air trapping, not blood accumulation in the pleural space, making this diagnosis inconsistent with the patient's specific presentation of hemothorax.
Choice C rationale
A simple pneumothorax is the presence of air in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse, but without the one-way valve effect seen in a tension pneumothorax. It presents with dyspnea and asymmetrical chest expansion. While it causes a collapsed lung, the defining feature of this patient's case is the presence of a blood accumulation in the pleural space, which is not a hallmark of a simple pneumothorax.
Choice D rationale
A hemothorax is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity, which is the space between the lungs and the chest wall. The presence of a collapsed lung, blood accumulation in the pleural space, dyspnea, and asymmetrical chest expansion directly corresponds to the classic presentation of a hemothorax. This diagnosis accurately and completely accounts for all the symptoms described in the patient's clinical scenario. .
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Eczema, or atopic dermatitis, is a chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by itchy, red, and swollen skin. While it can be patchy, it typically presents with weeping, crusting, and scaling, but not the thick, silvery scales characteristic of the described rash. Eczema often occurs in skin folds and flexural surfaces, distinguishing it from the patient's presentation.
Choice B rationale
Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune condition causing an accelerated turnover of skin cells. This rapid proliferation leads to the formation of thick, red patches covered with characteristic silvery scales. The typical locations are the elbows, knees, and scalp, which perfectly matches the patient's presentation, making this the most likely diagnosis.
Choice C rationale
Scabies is a contagious infestation of the skin by the human itch mite. It presents as an intensely itchy rash, often with small, raised red bumps and burrows, typically found in skin folds, between fingers, and on the wrists. It does not produce the thick, silvery scales seen in the patient's rash, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D rationale
Seborrheic dermatitis is a common skin condition that mainly affects the scalp, causing flaky scales and red skin, and is commonly known as dandruff. While it can occur in other oily areas of the body, it does not typically present with the thick, silvery scales on the elbows and knees that are highly indicative of psoriasis. *.
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